Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is providing postpartum care to a client who had a vaginal delivery. Which finding would require further assessment?

• A. Perineal swelling
• B. Moderate lochia serosa
• C. Headache unrelieved by analgesics
• D. Breast engorgement

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A headache unrelieved by analgesics can be a sign of a serious condition such as preeclampsia, which is a life-threatening condition characterized by high blood pressure and often protein in the urine. Prompt assessment and intervention are crucial to prevent complications for both the mother and baby.

2. Based on the complaints provided by Madam KK, is the child exhibiting danger signs?

• A. Yes
• B. No
• C. I don't know
• D. Yes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Yes, the child is displaying danger signs with symptoms such as fever and rapid breathing, indicating a potential serious health issue that requires immediate attention. The correct answer is 'Yes' because the symptoms described in Madam KK's complaints align with danger signs that suggest a severe health problem. Choices B and C are incorrect because the symptoms mentioned clearly indicate the presence of danger signs. Choice D is a duplicate of choice A and does not provide a valid alternative.

3. What is the appropriate treatment for a responsive 4-year-old child with a mild airway obstruction, respiratory distress, a strong cough, and normal skin color?

• A. Oxygen, back slaps, and transport.
• B. Subdiaphragmatic thrusts until the object is expelled.
• C. Assisted ventilations, back slaps, and transport.
• D. Supplemental oxygen and transport.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: For a responsive 4-year-old child with a mild airway obstruction, respiratory distress, a strong cough, and normal skin color, the appropriate treatment includes providing supplemental oxygen and arranging for transport to a healthcare facility. Oxygen helps alleviate the respiratory distress, and transport ensures the child receives further evaluation and care by healthcare professionals. Back slaps and subdiaphragmatic thrusts are not recommended for a child with a mild airway obstruction and normal skin color, as these interventions are typically reserved for more severe cases of airway obstruction.

4. When assessing a 5-year-old boy with major trauma, his blood pressure is 70/40 mm Hg, and his pulse rate is 140 beats/min and weak. The child's blood pressure:

• A. indicates decompensated shock.
• B. reflects adequate compensation.
• C. suggests increased intracranial pressure.
• D. is appropriate based on his age.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a 5-year-old boy with major trauma, a blood pressure of 70/40 mm Hg and a pulse rate of 140 beats/min, and weak, indicate decompensated shock. This presentation signifies inadequate perfusion, leading to compensatory mechanisms being overwhelmed, resulting in decompensated shock. Choice B is incorrect as the vital signs suggest the body is unable to adequately compensate for the trauma. Choice C is incorrect as the vital signs are more indicative of shock rather than increased intracranial pressure. Choice D is incorrect as such low blood pressure is not appropriate for a child of this age and indicates a critical condition.

5. During the 5-minute Apgar assessment of a newborn, you note a heart rate of 130 beats/min, cyanosis in the hands and feet, and rapid respirations. The baby cries when you flick the soles of its feet and resists leg straightening. These findings correspond to an Apgar score of:

• A. 9
• B. 7
• C. 8
• D. 10

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Apgar score is a rapid assessment tool to evaluate the newborn's transition to life outside the womb. The Apgar score is based on five components: heart rate (>100 bpm), respiratory effort (rapid breathing), muscle tone (resisting leg straightening), reflex irritability (crying when feet are flicked), and color (cyanosis to extremities). The described findings match a score of 9, indicating good overall condition and adaptation to extrauterine life.

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