Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is providing postpartum care to a client who had a vaginal delivery. Which finding would require further assessment?

• A. Perineal swelling
• B. Moderate lochia serosa
• C. Headache unrelieved by analgesics
• D. Breast engorgement

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A headache unrelieved by analgesics can be a sign of a serious condition such as preeclampsia, which is a life-threatening condition characterized by high blood pressure and often protein in the urine. Prompt assessment and intervention are crucial to prevent complications for both the mother and baby.

2. Nana Esi is an 11-year-old girl diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus (DM). She asks her attending nurse why she can't take a pill rather than shots like her grandmother does. Which of the following would be the nurse's best reply?

• A. If your blood glucose levels are controlled, you can switch to using pills.
• B. The pills correct fat and protein metabolism, not carbohydrate metabolism.
• C. Your body does not make insulin, so the insulin injections help to replace it.
• D. The pills work on the adult pancreas; you can switch when you are 18.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse's best reply to Nana Esi is option C: 'Your body does not make insulin, so the insulin injections help to replace it.' In type 1 diabetes, the body's immune system destroys the insulin-producing beta cells in the pancreas. As a result, individuals with type 1 diabetes do not produce insulin, necessitating insulin injections for survival. Option A is incorrect as type 1 diabetes always requires insulin therapy. Option B is inaccurate as pills do not replace the function of insulin. Option D is also incorrect as there is no age restriction on using insulin therapy for type 1 diabetes.

3. How will a ventricular septal defect affect blood flow?

• A. Blood will shunt left to right, causing increased pulmonary flow and no cyanosis.
• B. Blood will shunt right to left, causing decreased pulmonary flow and cyanosis.
• C. No shunting occurs due to high pressure in the left ventricle.
• D. Increased pressure in the left atrium hinders the circulation of oxygenated blood in the circulating volume.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A ventricular septal defect allows blood to shunt left to right, leading to increased pulmonary flow. This results in oxygenated blood mixing with deoxygenated blood, causing no cyanosis as the mixed blood is still oxygenated. The shunting from left to right overloads the pulmonary circulation, leading to increased pulmonary flow. Choice B is incorrect because blood does not shunt right to left in a ventricular septal defect. Choice C is incorrect as shunting does occur due to the pressure differences between the ventricles. Choice D is incorrect because the defect affects the ventricles, not the atrium, and does not hinder the circulation of oxygenated blood in the circulating volume.

4. A mother reported to you that her 6-year-old child is suffering from diarrhea. Which of the following advice will you give to the mother?

• A. Breastfeeding should be continued day and night
• B. Formula milk should be stopped for 6 hours
• C. Breast milk can be given together with oral rehydration salts
• D. A and C

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a child is suffering from diarrhea, it is essential to continue breastfeeding day and night to maintain hydration and provide necessary nutrients. Stopping formula milk for 6 hours (choice B) is not the recommended approach as it may lead to a lack of essential nutrients during this critical time. Giving breast milk together with oral rehydration salts (choice C) can help replenish lost fluids and electrolytes, making it a suitable recommendation. Therefore, advising the mother to follow both options A and C is the most appropriate approach to manage the child's condition effectively.

5. When evaluating a client's fluid intake and output record, how should fluid intake and urine output relate?

• A. Fluid intake should double the urine output
• B. Fluid intake should be approximately equal to the urine output
• C. Fluid intake should be half the urine output
• D. Fluid intake should be inversely proportional to the urine output

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In assessing a client's fluid intake and output record, it is essential for fluid intake to be approximately equal to the urine output. This balance indicates proper hydration and renal function. Deviations from this balance could signify potential issues that need further investigation and management.

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