Nursing Elites

1. Fred is a 12-year-old boy diagnosed with pneumococcal pneumonia. Which of the following would Nurse Nica expect to assess?

• A. Mild cough
• B. Slight fever
• C. Chest pain
• D. Bulging fontanel

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Chest pain is a common symptom seen in patients with pneumococcal pneumonia. It can result from inflammation of the pleura or irritation of the diaphragm due to the infection. While cough and fever are also common symptoms, chest pain is particularly significant in pneumonia cases as it can be a distressing symptom for the patient and may indicate complications or severity of the infection. Bulging fontanel, on the other hand, is more indicative of conditions affecting infants and is not typically associated with pneumococcal pneumonia in a 12-year-old boy.

2. What is the most likely cause of a sudden onset of respiratory distress in a 5-year-old child with no fever?

• A. Infection of the lower airways.
• B. A progressive upper airway infection.
• C. Inflammation of the upper airway.
• D. A foreign body airway obstruction.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A sudden onset of respiratory distress in a child without fever is most likely due to a foreign body airway obstruction. This obstruction can rapidly lead to difficulty breathing, stridor, and other signs of respiratory distress without necessarily causing a fever. Prompt recognition and intervention are crucial in such cases to prevent further complications and ensure the child's airway remains clear.

3. What should be the drop rate per minute using a drop factor of 20 drops/ml?

• A. 19 drops/min
• B. 23 drops/min
• C. 36 drops/min
• D. 46.7 drops/min

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the drop rate per minute when using a drop factor of 20 drops/ml, you simply divide 60 (minutes) by the drop factor (20 drops/ml), giving you 3. Therefore, the drop rate per minute would be 3 drops x 20 drops/ml = 60 drops/min. However, since the question asks for the drop rate using a 20 drops/ml factor, the correct answer is slightly less than 60. By rounding down, the closest option is 19 drops/min, which is the correct calculation when considering the drop factor.

4. Which of the following is not an infectious cause of diarrhea?

• A. Allergy
• B. Bacteria
• C. Parasite
• D. Virus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Allergy. Allergy is not an infectious cause of diarrhea. Diarrhea caused by bacteria, parasites, and viruses is due to infection, while an allergy triggers an immune response that can lead to diarrhea but is not caused by an infectious agent. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because bacteria, parasites, and viruses are known infectious causes of diarrhea, resulting from infections by these microorganisms.

5. Which pain assessment tool is most appropriate for a 3-month-old hospitalized with a fractured femur?

• A. FLACC scale
• B. Poker chip tool
• C. Number scale
• D. Visual analog scale

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The FLACC scale, which stands for Face, Legs, Activity, Cry, and Consolability, is specifically designed for nonverbal patients like infants and young children. It assesses pain based on observable behaviors such as facial expressions, leg movement, activity level, cry, and the ability to be consoled. In this case, a 3-month-old infant who is unable to communicate verbally would best be assessed using the FLACC scale to determine the level of pain experienced due to a fractured femur. The Poker chip tool, Number scale, and Visual analog scale are not suitable for nonverbal infants and young children as they rely on self-reporting or cognitive abilities that are not yet developed at this age.

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