Nursing Elites

1. Following an apparent febrile seizure, a 4-year-old boy is alert and crying. His skin is hot and moist. Appropriate treatment for this child includes:

• A. allowing the parents to transport the child.
• B. offering oxygen and providing transport.
• C. rapidly cooling the child in cold water.
• D. keeping the child warm and providing transport.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After a febrile seizure, the priority is to offer oxygen and provide transport to a medical facility. Oxygen may be necessary to ensure proper oxygenation, and medical evaluation is crucial to determine the cause of the seizure and prevent recurrence. Rapidly cooling the child in cold water is not recommended as it may lead to complications such as hypothermia. Keeping the child warm is also not indicated as the skin is already hot and moist. Therefore, offering oxygen and timely transportation to a healthcare facility is the most appropriate course of action. Allowing the parents to transport the child might delay necessary medical care, and keeping the child warm can exacerbate the existing heat. Rapidly cooling the child in cold water can lead to adverse effects, making it an inappropriate choice.

2. Which of the following statements regarding two-rescuer child CPR is correct?

• A. The chest should be compressed with one hand, and a compression-to-ventilation ratio of 30:2 should be delivered.
• B. A compression-to-ventilation ratio of 15:2 should be delivered with pauses in compressions to give ventilations.
• C. The chest should be allowed to fully recoil between compressions to optimize venous return.
• D. Compress the chest with one or two hands to a depth equal to one third the diameter of the chest.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In two-rescuer child CPR, the correct compression depth is one third the diameter of the chest. This depth can be achieved by compressing the chest with one or two hands. It is crucial to follow the correct compression depth guideline to ensure effective chest compressions and circulation during CPR for a child.

3. The parents of a child hospitalized with asthma who is recovering and is being prepared for discharge are receiving home care instructions from the nurse. Which statement by a parent indicates a need for further instruction?

• A. Coughing spells may be triggered by dust or smoke
• B. Vomiting may occur when our child has coughing episodes
• C. We need to encourage our child to drink fluids
• D. We need to maintain droplet precautions and a quiet environment for at least 2 weeks

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The statement 'We need to maintain droplet precautions and a quiet environment for at least 2 weeks' indicates a need for further instruction. Asthma management does not typically require maintaining droplet precautions. The focus should be on environmental control, medication adherence, and monitoring symptoms rather than droplet precautions, which are more relevant for contagious respiratory infections.

4. A 3-month-old is hospitalized with a fractured femur. The pain assessment tool most appropriate for this child is the:

• A. FLACC scale.
• B. Poker chip tool.
• C. Number scale.
• D. Visual analog scale.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The FLACC scale is a validated pain assessment tool suitable for infants and young children, including 3-month-olds. It assesses pain based on five categories: Face, Legs, Activity, Cry, and Consolability. Since infants cannot communicate their pain verbally, the FLACC scale is effective in evaluating pain by observing these behavioral indicators. The other options, such as the Poker chip tool, Number scale, and Visual analog scale, are not specifically designed for infants and may not provide accurate pain assessment in this age group.

5. How will a ventricular septal defect affect blood flow?

• A. Blood will shunt left to right, causing increased pulmonary flow and no cyanosis.
• B. Blood will shunt right to left, causing decreased pulmonary flow and cyanosis.
• C. No shunting occurs due to high pressure in the left ventricle.
• D. Increased pressure in the left atrium hinders the circulation of oxygenated blood in the circulating volume.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A ventricular septal defect allows blood to shunt left to right, leading to increased pulmonary flow. This results in oxygenated blood mixing with deoxygenated blood, causing no cyanosis as the mixed blood is still oxygenated. The shunting from left to right overloads the pulmonary circulation, leading to increased pulmonary flow. Choice B is incorrect because blood does not shunt right to left in a ventricular septal defect. Choice C is incorrect as shunting does occur due to the pressure differences between the ventricles. Choice D is incorrect because the defect affects the ventricles, not the atrium, and does not hinder the circulation of oxygenated blood in the circulating volume.

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