Nursing Elites

1. Following an apparent febrile seizure, a 4-year-old boy is alert and crying. His skin is hot and moist. Appropriate treatment for this child includes:

• A. allowing the parents to transport the child.
• B. offering oxygen and providing transport.
• C. rapidly cooling the child in cold water.
• D. keeping the child warm and providing transport.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After a febrile seizure, the priority is to offer oxygen and provide transport to a medical facility. Oxygen may be necessary to ensure proper oxygenation, and medical evaluation is crucial to determine the cause of the seizure and prevent recurrence. Rapidly cooling the child in cold water is not recommended as it may lead to complications such as hypothermia. Keeping the child warm is also not indicated as the skin is already hot and moist. Therefore, offering oxygen and timely transportation to a healthcare facility is the most appropriate course of action. Allowing the parents to transport the child might delay necessary medical care, and keeping the child warm can exacerbate the existing heat. Rapidly cooling the child in cold water can lead to adverse effects, making it an inappropriate choice.

2. Which behavior is most indicative that a 2-year-old is experiencing the initial phase of separation anxiety because his parents cannot stay all day at the hospital with him?

• A. He withdraws from the nursing staff.
• B. He cries when his parents leave.
• C. He lies quietly in bed.
• D. He cries when his parents arrive.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most indicative behavior of a 2-year-old experiencing the initial phase of separation anxiety due to parents not staying all day at the hospital is crying when his parents leave. This behavior is a common manifestation of separation anxiety in children, as they struggle with the absence of their primary attachment figures. Choices A, C, and D are less indicative because withdrawing from the nursing staff, lying quietly in bed, or crying when parents arrive do not specifically demonstrate the distress caused by separation from parents, which is the hallmark of separation anxiety in children.

3. What is the reason for Asthma in 4-year-old Mabele, as Mrs. Joyce Thomson inquires? How would you explain it?

• A. Asthma occurs due to inflammation of the respiratory tract triggered by infections.
• B. An asthmatic attack can occur when the child is exposed to certain allergens, triggering an allergic reaction in the bronchioles that causes bronchial constriction.
• C. An asthmatic attack is a response to the release of inflammatory mediators to epithelial cells, affecting the autonomic neural control of the airway.
• D. Asthma is not an inborn problem; it involves abnormal growth of the bronchial tree causing restriction.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Asthma in children like Mabele can be triggered by exposure to allergens, leading to an allergic reaction in the bronchioles. This reaction causes constriction of the bronchial tree, resulting in an asthmatic attack. It is essential for caregivers to identify and minimize exposure to these triggers to manage and prevent asthma episodes effectively.

4. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer Rh immune globulin (RhoGAM) to a postpartum client. This medication is indicated for:

• A. Rh-negative individuals with Rh-positive infants
• B. Rh-positive individuals with Rh-negative infants
• C. All individuals regardless of Rh status
• D. Individuals with a history of Rh incompatibility

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Rh immune globulin (RhoGAM) is administered to Rh-negative individuals who have given birth to Rh-positive infants to prevent Rh sensitization. When an Rh-negative individual gives birth to an Rh-positive infant, there is a risk of the mother developing antibodies against the Rh-positive blood cells, which can lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn in subsequent pregnancies. Rh immune globulin is given to prevent this sensitization in Rh-negative individuals who deliver Rh-positive infants.

5. Which of the following is not an infectious cause of diarrhea?

• A. Allergy
• B. Bacteria
• C. Parasite
• D. Virus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Allergy. Allergy is not an infectious cause of diarrhea. Diarrhea caused by bacteria, parasites, and viruses is due to infection, while an allergy triggers an immune response that can lead to diarrhea but is not caused by an infectious agent. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because bacteria, parasites, and viruses are known infectious causes of diarrhea, resulting from infections by these microorganisms.

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