Nursing Elites

1. A postpartum client is experiencing difficulty voiding. What should the nurse include in the care plan to assist the client?

• A. Encourage the client to drink caffeine-free beverages.
• B. Apply a warm compress to the client's lower abdomen.
• C. Encourage increased fluid intake to promote urinary flow.
• D. Assist the client with Kegel exercises.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Applying a warm compress to the lower abdomen can help relax the muscles and stimulate voiding in postpartum clients. It promotes vasodilation, increases blood flow to the area, and can aid in relieving urinary retention. Encouraging caffeine-free beverages can also be beneficial as caffeine can irritate the bladder and worsen the situation. Increasing fluid intake helps prevent urinary stasis and promotes bladder emptying. Kegel exercises can strengthen pelvic floor muscles over time, but in the immediate situation of difficulty voiding, a warm compress is more appropriate.

2. What is the term for a condition where there is a failure of the pituitary to produce sufficient growth hormone to sustain normal growth in children, with 80% of cases being idiopathic? It may present with familial patterns, affecting males more than females.

• A. Cretinism
• B. Growth hormone deficiency
• C. Hypothyroidism
• D. Precocious puberty

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Growth hormone deficiency refers to a condition where there is inadequate production of growth hormone by the pituitary gland. This results in impaired growth in children. While 80% of cases are of unknown cause (idiopathic), some may have familial patterns. It is more common in males than females. Cretinism is a condition of severe hypothyroidism during infancy, not related to growth hormone. Hypothyroidism is a disorder involving low thyroid hormone levels, and precocious puberty is the early onset of puberty. Therefore, the correct answer is 'Growth hormone deficiency.'

3. Which behavior is most indicative that a 2-year-old is experiencing the initial phase of separation anxiety because his parents cannot stay all day at the hospital with him?

• A. He withdraws from the nursing staff.
• B. He cries when his parents leave.
• C. He lies quietly in bed.
• D. He cries when his parents arrive.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most indicative behavior of a 2-year-old experiencing the initial phase of separation anxiety due to parents not staying all day at the hospital is crying when his parents leave. This behavior is a common manifestation of separation anxiety in children, as they struggle with the absence of their primary attachment figures. Choices A, C, and D are less indicative because withdrawing from the nursing staff, lying quietly in bed, or crying when parents arrive do not specifically demonstrate the distress caused by separation from parents, which is the hallmark of separation anxiety in children.

4. When inserting an oropharyngeal airway in a small child, what is the preferred method?

• A. Insert the airway with the curvature towards the roof of the mouth and then rotate it 180 degrees.
• B. Insert the airway as you would in an adult, but use an airway that is one size smaller than usual.
• C. Depress the tongue with a tongue blade and insert the airway with the downward curve facing the tongue.
• D. Open the airway with the tongue-jaw lift maneuver and insert the airway until slight resistance is met.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When inserting an oropharyngeal airway in a small child, it is crucial to depress the tongue with a tongue blade and insert the airway with the downward curve facing the tongue. This technique helps in maintaining an open airway and preventing obstruction by the tongue. Placing the airway with the curve facing the roof of the mouth or using a smaller size is not recommended for small children, as it may not effectively keep the airway patent. The tongue-jaw lift maneuver is not the preferred method for inserting an oropharyngeal airway in small children.

5. An 18-month-old child presents with fever, nasal flaring, intercostal retractions, and a respiratory rate of 50 bpm. What is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis?

• A. High risk for altered body temperature - hyperthermia
• B. Ineffective breathing pattern
• C. Ineffective individual coping
• D. Knowledge deficit

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this case, the child is showing signs of respiratory distress, such as nasal flaring, intercostal retractions, and an increased respiratory rate. These are indicative of an ineffective breathing pattern. The child's compromised respiratory function requires immediate attention and intervention, making 'Ineffective breathing pattern' the most appropriate nursing diagnosis. Choices A, C, and D do not address the respiratory distress the child is experiencing and are not the priority in this situation.

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