Nursing Elites

1. A child of 3 years has been admitted to your pediatric ward. The doctor gave a provisional diagnosis of respiratory tract infection. After careful assessment and history, he gave a final diagnosis of lower respiratory infection. Which of the following signs will confirm the diagnosis?

• A. Cough
• B. Fever
• C. Inability to lie supine
• D. Inability to eat

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Inability to lie supine is a specific sign of lower respiratory infection. This condition can cause discomfort or difficulty in breathing when lying flat, leading to a preference for an upright or semi-upright position. While cough and fever are common symptoms of respiratory infections, the inability to lie supine is more indicative of lower respiratory involvement.

2. Which of the following statements regarding pediatric anatomy is correct?

• A. The child's trachea is more rigid and less prone to collapse.
• B. The occiput is proportionately larger when compared to an adult.
• C. Airway obstruction is common in children due to their large uvula.
• D. Relative to the overall size of the airway, a child's epiglottis is smaller.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The occiput, the back part of the head, is proportionately larger in children compared to adults, which can have implications for airway management techniques. This anatomical difference is important to consider when providing care to pediatric patients, especially during airway interventions.

3. What should be the drop rate per minute using a drop factor of 20 drops/ml?

• A. 19 drops/min
• B. 23 drops/min
• C. 36 drops/min
• D. 46.7 drops/min

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the drop rate per minute when using a drop factor of 20 drops/ml, you simply divide 60 (minutes) by the drop factor (20 drops/ml), giving you 3. Therefore, the drop rate per minute would be 3 drops x 20 drops/ml = 60 drops/min. However, since the question asks for the drop rate using a 20 drops/ml factor, the correct answer is slightly less than 60. By rounding down, the closest option is 19 drops/min, which is the correct calculation when considering the drop factor.

4. Warning signs that indicate dehydration include all EXCEPT:

• A. Poor skin turgor
• B. Increased urine output
• C. Tachycardia
• D. Eager to drink

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Increased urine output is not a warning sign of dehydration; it typically decreases with dehydration. Dehydration often presents with poor skin turgor, tachycardia, and an increased sensation of thirst (eager to drink) as the body tries to compensate for fluid loss. Choices A, C, and D are all correct warning signs of dehydration. Poor skin turgor is a result of decreased skin elasticity due to fluid loss. Tachycardia, an elevated heart rate, can be a compensatory mechanism to maintain cardiac output in dehydration. Feeling eager to drink is a common symptom of dehydration as the body attempts to restore fluid balance.

5. A postpartum client is concerned about hair loss. The nurse explains that this is:

• A. A sign of nutritional deficiency
• B. A temporary condition due to hormonal changes
• C. An indication of a thyroid disorder
• D. A result of poor hair care during pregnancy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hair loss postpartum is a common temporary condition caused by hormonal changes that occur after giving birth. This condition is known as postpartum alopecia and is a normal part of the postpartum period. It is important for the nurse to reassure the client that this hair loss is temporary and usually resolves on its own without the need for medical intervention. Choice A is incorrect because postpartum hair loss is primarily due to hormonal changes rather than nutritional deficiency. Choice C is incorrect as thyroid disorder is not typically the cause of postpartum hair loss. Choice D is incorrect as poor hair care during pregnancy does not cause postpartum hair loss.

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