Nursing Elites

1. What is the reason for Asthma in 4-year-old Mabele, as Mrs. Joyce Thomson inquires? How would you explain it?

• A. Asthma occurs due to inflammation of the respiratory tract triggered by infections.
• B. An asthmatic attack can occur when the child is exposed to certain allergens, triggering an allergic reaction in the bronchioles that causes bronchial constriction.
• C. An asthmatic attack is a response to the release of inflammatory mediators to epithelial cells, affecting the autonomic neural control of the airway.
• D. Asthma is not an inborn problem; it involves abnormal growth of the bronchial tree causing restriction.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Asthma in children like Mabele can be triggered by exposure to allergens, leading to an allergic reaction in the bronchioles. This reaction causes constriction of the bronchial tree, resulting in an asthmatic attack. It is essential for caregivers to identify and minimize exposure to these triggers to manage and prevent asthma episodes effectively.

2. Nana Esi is an 11-year-old girl diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus (DM). She asks her attending nurse why she can't take a pill rather than shots like her grandmother does. Which of the following would be the nurse's best reply?

• A. If your blood glucose levels are controlled, you can switch to using pills.
• B. The pills correct fat and protein metabolism, not carbohydrate metabolism.
• C. Your body does not make insulin, so the insulin injections help to replace it.
• D. The pills work on the adult pancreas; you can switch when you are 18.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse's best reply to Nana Esi is option C: 'Your body does not make insulin, so the insulin injections help to replace it.' In type 1 diabetes, the body's immune system destroys the insulin-producing beta cells in the pancreas. As a result, individuals with type 1 diabetes do not produce insulin, necessitating insulin injections for survival. Option A is incorrect as type 1 diabetes always requires insulin therapy. Option B is inaccurate as pills do not replace the function of insulin. Option D is also incorrect as there is no age restriction on using insulin therapy for type 1 diabetes.

3. How will a ventricular septal defect affect blood flow?

• A. Blood will shunt left to right, causing increased pulmonary flow and no cyanosis.
• B. Blood will shunt right to left, causing decreased pulmonary flow and cyanosis.
• C. No shunting occurs due to high pressure in the left ventricle.
• D. Increased pressure in the left atrium hinders the circulation of oxygenated blood in the circulating volume.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A ventricular septal defect allows blood to shunt left to right, leading to increased pulmonary flow. This results in oxygenated blood mixing with deoxygenated blood, causing no cyanosis as the mixed blood is still oxygenated. The shunting from left to right overloads the pulmonary circulation, leading to increased pulmonary flow. Choice B is incorrect because blood does not shunt right to left in a ventricular septal defect. Choice C is incorrect as shunting does occur due to the pressure differences between the ventricles. Choice D is incorrect because the defect affects the ventricles, not the atrium, and does not hinder the circulation of oxygenated blood in the circulating volume.

4. A 30-year-old woman has severe lower abdominal pain and light vaginal bleeding. She tells you that her last menstrual period was 2 months ago. On the basis of these findings, you should suspect:

• A. a normal pregnancy.
• B. a ruptured ovarian cyst.
• C. an ectopic pregnancy.
• D. a spontaneous abortion.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Severe lower abdominal pain, light vaginal bleeding, and a history of missed periods are concerning for an ectopic pregnancy. The absence of a normal menstrual period along with these symptoms raises suspicion for an ectopic pregnancy, which requires immediate medical attention due to the risk of rupture and life-threatening complications. A normal pregnancy would typically present with different symptoms such as a positive pregnancy test and typical signs of early pregnancy. A ruptured ovarian cyst may present with similar symptoms but typically lacks the history of missed periods. A spontaneous abortion usually involves heavier bleeding and tissue passage, which is not described in this scenario.

5. As a nurse caring for Asana, a 9-year-old girl with the stature of a 4-year-old due to growth hormone deficiency, which of the following will be your priority during follow-up visits?

• A. Vital signs monitoring
• B. Height and weight monitoring
• C. Bone age studies
• D. Dietary assessment

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Height and weight monitoring are essential for evaluating the growth progress in a child with growth hormone deficiency. Regular monitoring helps assess the effectiveness of treatment and ensures appropriate growth trajectory for the child.

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