Nursing Elites

1. Non-pharmacological techniques can help lower blood pressure. Which of the following is not considered one of these types of techniques?

• A. Dietary changes
• B. Multivitamins
• C. Smoking cessation
• D. Limiting caffeine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Multivitamins are not typically considered a non-pharmacological technique for lowering blood pressure. While dietary changes, smoking cessation, and limiting caffeine intake can positively impact blood pressure levels, multivitamins are generally not specifically recommended as a primary intervention for this purpose. Dietary changes can include reducing salt intake and increasing potassium-rich foods, which are known to help manage blood pressure. Smoking cessation is crucial due to the negative impact of smoking on blood pressure and overall cardiovascular health. Limiting caffeine intake is advised as excessive caffeine consumption can lead to a temporary increase in blood pressure. Therefore, focusing on lifestyle modifications like healthy eating, smoking cessation, and caffeine reduction is more effective in managing blood pressure than relying on multivitamins.

2. General guidelines when assessing a 2-year-old child with abdominal pain and adequate perfusion include:

• A. placing the child supine and palpating the abdomen.
• B. separating the child from the parent to ensure a reliable examination.
• C. examining the child in the parent's arms.
• D. palpating the painful area of the abdomen first.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When assessing a 2-year-old child with abdominal pain and adequate perfusion, it is essential to examine the child in the parent's arms. This approach can help maintain the child's comfort, keep them calm, and increase their cooperation during the assessment. Placing the child supine and palpating the abdomen (Choice A) can be distressing and uncomfortable for the child. Separating the child from the parent (Choice B) may cause additional stress and hinder the examination process. Palpating the painful area first (Choice D) can lead to increased discomfort and resistance from the child.

3. Which of the following statements regarding pediatric anatomy is correct?

• A. The child's trachea is more rigid and less prone to collapse.
• B. The occiput is proportionately larger when compared to an adult.
• C. Airway obstruction is common in children due to their large uvula.
• D. Relative to the overall size of the airway, a child's epiglottis is smaller.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The occiput, the back part of the head, is proportionately larger in children compared to adults, which can have implications for airway management techniques. This anatomical difference is important to consider when providing care to pediatric patients, especially during airway interventions.

4. During a well-child visit, a 10-year-old child is found to be above the 95th percentile for weight and reports watching more than two hours of television daily. An appropriate nursing diagnosis for this child is:

• A. Imbalanced Nutrition: More than body requirements
• B. Altered Growth and Development
• C. Ineffective Coping
• D. Altered Family Processes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct nursing diagnosis for a 10-year-old child who is above the 95th percentile for weight and watches more than two hours of television daily would be 'Imbalanced Nutrition: More than body requirements.' This diagnosis reflects the excessive intake of nutrients compared to the child's energy expenditure, which can contribute to weight gain. 'Altered Growth and Development' (choice B) is not the most appropriate diagnosis in this scenario, as the primary concern is related to nutrition and sedentary behavior rather than developmental issues. 'Ineffective Coping' (choice C) and 'Altered Family Processes' (choice D) are also not relevant to the child's weight status and television habits. Monitoring and addressing the child's dietary habits and sedentary behavior are essential to promote a healthier lifestyle and prevent further weight-related issues.

5. Which of the following is NOT an appropriate treatment for an 18-year-old woman with severe vaginal bleeding?

• A. Covering the vagina with a trauma dressing.
• B. Administering high concentrations of oxygen.
• C. Placing sterile dressings into the vagina.
• D. Keeping her warm with blankets.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Placing sterile dressings into the vagina is not an appropriate treatment for severe vaginal bleeding. The correct approach involves applying pressure to the external vaginal area to control bleeding, covering the vagina with a trauma dressing to help with compression, administering high concentrations of oxygen to support oxygenation, and keeping the patient warm with blankets to prevent hypothermia. Placing sterile dressings into the vagina can introduce foreign material, increase the risk of infection, and obstruct proper wound management, making it an incorrect treatment option in this scenario.

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