ATI LPN
ATI Pediatric Medications Test
1. How will a ventricular septal defect affect blood flow?
- A. Blood will shunt left to right, causing increased pulmonary flow and no cyanosis.
- B. Blood will shunt right to left, causing decreased pulmonary flow and cyanosis.
- C. No shunting occurs due to high pressure in the left ventricle.
- D. Increased pressure in the left atrium hinders the circulation of oxygenated blood in the circulating volume.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A ventricular septal defect allows blood to shunt left to right, leading to increased pulmonary flow. This results in oxygenated blood mixing with deoxygenated blood, causing no cyanosis as the mixed blood is still oxygenated. The shunting from left to right overloads the pulmonary circulation, leading to increased pulmonary flow. Choice B is incorrect because blood does not shunt right to left in a ventricular septal defect. Choice C is incorrect as shunting does occur due to the pressure differences between the ventricles. Choice D is incorrect because the defect affects the ventricles, not the atrium, and does not hinder the circulation of oxygenated blood in the circulating volume.
2. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer Rh immune globulin (RhoGAM) to a postpartum client. This medication is indicated for:
- A. Rh-negative individuals with Rh-positive infants
- B. Rh-positive individuals with Rh-negative infants
- C. All individuals regardless of Rh status
- D. Individuals with a history of Rh incompatibility
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Rh immune globulin (RhoGAM) is administered to Rh-negative individuals who have given birth to Rh-positive infants to prevent Rh sensitization. When an Rh-negative individual gives birth to an Rh-positive infant, there is a risk of the mother developing antibodies against the Rh-positive blood cells, which can lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn in subsequent pregnancies. Rh immune globulin is given to prevent this sensitization in Rh-negative individuals who deliver Rh-positive infants.
3. The healthcare provider is assessing a newborn for signs of hypoglycemia. Which finding is consistent with hypoglycemia?
- A. Jitteriness
- B. Flushed skin
- C. Quiet alert state
- D. Strong cry
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Jitteriness is a common clinical manifestation of hypoglycemia in newborns. It is important to recognize this sign promptly as it can indicate a potentially serious condition that requires immediate attention and intervention to prevent complications.
4. The healthcare provider assesses the vital signs of a 12-month-old infant with a respiratory infection and notes that the respiratory rate is 35 breaths/minute. Based on this finding, which action is most appropriate?
- A. Administer oxygen
- B. Document the findings
- C. Notify the healthcare provider
- D. Reassess the respiratory rate in 15 minutes
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Documenting the findings is the most appropriate action since a respiratory rate of 35 breaths per minute falls within the normal range for a 12-month-old infant. There is no immediate need for interventions such as administering oxygen or notifying the healthcare provider. Reassessing the respiratory rate in 15 minutes is unnecessary as the rate is within normal limits.
5. What characteristic indicates that a mass on a newborn's head is a cephalohematoma?
- A. The mass appears on the second day after birth.
- B. The mass grows larger when the newborn cries.
- C. The head appears asymmetrical.
- D. The mass is located on only one side of the head.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A cephalohematoma typically appears between the first and second days after birth, making choice A the correct answer. It results from blood vessel rupture between a cranial bone and the periosteal membrane. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the growth of the mass when the newborn cries, asymmetrical head appearance, or the mass being located on only one side of the head are not specific indicators of a cephalohematoma.
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