Nursing Elites

1. Management for a woman presenting with a prolapsed umbilical cord includes all of the following, EXCEPT:

• A. lifting the baby's head off the umbilical cord.
• B. placing the mother in a position that elevates her hips.
• C. ensuring that the cord stays moist during transport.
• D. relieving pressure off the cord by gently pulling on it.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In cases of prolapsed umbilical cord, it is crucial to manage the situation promptly. The correct steps include lifting the baby's head off the umbilical cord to reduce pressure, placing the mother in a position that elevates her hips to relieve pressure on the cord, and ensuring that the cord stays moist. Pulling on the cord is not recommended as it can further compromise fetal circulation and should be avoided. Therefore, relieving pressure off the cord by gently pulling on it is not a recommended management approach in cases of prolapsed umbilical cord.

2. A 9-year-old girl was struck by a car while crossing the street. Your assessment reveals a large contusion over the left upper quadrant of her abdomen and signs of shock. Which of the following organs is MOST likely injured?

• A. Liver
• B. Kidney
• C. Pancreas
• D. Spleen

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The presence of a large contusion over the left upper quadrant of the abdomen, along with signs of shock, points towards a likely injury to the spleen, especially following trauma. The spleen is located in the left upper quadrant of the abdomen and is susceptible to injury due to its position and vulnerability to blunt trauma.

3. How will a ventricular septal defect affect blood flow?

• A. Blood will shunt left to right, causing increased pulmonary flow and no cyanosis.
• B. Blood will shunt right to left, causing decreased pulmonary flow and cyanosis.
• C. No shunting occurs due to high pressure in the left ventricle.
• D. Increased pressure in the left atrium hinders the circulation of oxygenated blood in the circulating volume.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A ventricular septal defect allows blood to shunt left to right, leading to increased pulmonary flow. This results in oxygenated blood mixing with deoxygenated blood, causing no cyanosis as the mixed blood is still oxygenated. The shunting from left to right overloads the pulmonary circulation, leading to increased pulmonary flow. Choice B is incorrect because blood does not shunt right to left in a ventricular septal defect. Choice C is incorrect as shunting does occur due to the pressure differences between the ventricles. Choice D is incorrect because the defect affects the ventricles, not the atrium, and does not hinder the circulation of oxygenated blood in the circulating volume.

4. You are assessing a 26-year-old woman who is 38 weeks pregnant and is in labor. She tells you that she was pregnant once before but had a miscarriage at 19 weeks. You should document her obstetric history as:

• A. gravida 2, para 1.
• B. gravida 2, para 0.
• C. gravida 1, para 1.
• D. gravida 0, para 2.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In obstetrics, gravida indicates the number of pregnancies, including the current one. Para indicates the number of pregnancies carried to viability (20 weeks or more). Since the patient has been pregnant twice but only carried one pregnancy past 20 weeks, her obstetric history should be documented as gravida 2, para 0. The miscarriage at 19 weeks does not contribute to the para count. Choice A (gravida 2, para 1) would indicate that she has had two pregnancies with one resulting in a live birth, which is incorrect. Choice C (gravida 1, para 1) would indicate that she has had one pregnancy with one live birth, which does not reflect her obstetric history. Choice D (gravida 0, para 2) would indicate that she has never been pregnant past 20 weeks, which is also inaccurate.

5. You arrive at the scene shortly after a 3-year-old female experienced a seizure. The child, who is being held by her mother, is conscious and crying. The mother tells you that her daughter has been ill recently and has a temperature of 102.5°F. What is the MOST appropriate treatment for this child?

• A. Oxygen via non-rebreathing mask, place the child in a tub of cold water to lower her body temperature, and transport.
• B. Oxygen via the blow-by technique, transport, and request a paramedic intercept so an anticonvulsant drug can be given.
• C. Oxygen via non-rebreathing mask, avoid any measures to lower the child's body temperature, and transport at once.
• D. Oxygen via the blow-by technique, remove clothing to help reduce her fever, and transport with continuous monitoring.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most appropriate treatment for a child who has experienced a seizure and has a fever includes administering oxygen via the blow-by technique, removing clothing to help reduce fever, and transporting the child with continuous monitoring. Choice A is incorrect because placing the child in a tub of cold water can lead to hypothermia and is not recommended for fever reduction. Choice B is incorrect as requesting an anticonvulsant drug without proper evaluation and assessment by a healthcare provider is not appropriate. Choice C is incorrect as avoiding measures to lower the child's body temperature can worsen the situation in case of febrile seizures. Therefore, the best course of action is to provide oxygen via the blow-by technique, remove excess clothing to reduce fever, and transport the child while continuously monitoring her condition.

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