Nursing Elites

1. Which position is MOST appropriate for a mother in labor with a prolapsed umbilical cord?

• A. Supine with legs elevated
• B. Supine with hips elevated
• C. Left lateral recumbent
• D. Left side with legs elevated

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate position for a mother in labor with a prolapsed umbilical cord is supine with hips elevated. This position helps reduce pressure on the cord, preventing further complications and ensuring optimal blood flow to the fetus.

2. How will a ventricular septal defect affect blood flow?

• A. Blood will shunt left to right, causing increased pulmonary flow and no cyanosis.
• B. Blood will shunt right to left, causing decreased pulmonary flow and cyanosis.
• C. No shunting occurs due to high pressure in the left ventricle.
• D. Increased pressure in the left atrium hinders the circulation of oxygenated blood in the circulating volume.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A ventricular septal defect allows blood to shunt left to right, leading to increased pulmonary flow. This results in oxygenated blood mixing with deoxygenated blood, causing no cyanosis as the mixed blood is still oxygenated. The shunting from left to right overloads the pulmonary circulation, leading to increased pulmonary flow. Choice B is incorrect because blood does not shunt right to left in a ventricular septal defect. Choice C is incorrect as shunting does occur due to the pressure differences between the ventricles. Choice D is incorrect because the defect affects the ventricles, not the atrium, and does not hinder the circulation of oxygenated blood in the circulating volume.

3. You are called to a local park for a 7-year-old boy with respiratory distress. During your assessment, you find that the patient is wheezing and has widespread hives and facial edema. What should you suspect has occurred?

• A. Poison oak exposure
• B. Allergic reaction
• C. Heat illness
• D. Acute asthma attack

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The presentation of wheezing, widespread hives, and facial edema is consistent with an allergic reaction. These symptoms indicate a systemic response to an allergen, triggering respiratory distress and skin manifestations.

4. When assessing a geriatric patient who has possibly experienced an acute ischemic stroke, which of the following questions would be MOST appropriate to ask?

• A. When did you first notice the symptoms?
• B. Do you have a history of high blood pressure?
• C. What medications do you take and why?
• D. Have you previously had a heart attack?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most appropriate question to ask when assessing a geriatric patient who may have experienced an acute ischemic stroke is when the symptoms were first noticed. This information is crucial for determining the time window for potential treatments like thrombolytic therapy, as prompt intervention is necessary for stroke management. Option B is not as relevant in the acute assessment of stroke, though important for overall health history. Option C is important but may not be as time-sensitive as determining symptom onset. Option D focuses on a different cardiac event, not directly related to the current concern of a possible stroke.

5. What is the appropriate ventilation rate for an apneic infant?

• A. 8 to 10 breaths/min.
• B. 10 to 12 breaths/min.
• C. 12 to 20 breaths/min.
• D. 20 to 30 breaths/min.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During resuscitation of an apneic infant, the appropriate ventilation rate is 12 to 20 breaths per minute. This rate helps provide adequate oxygenation and ventilation without causing harm to the infant. Choice A (8 to 10 breaths/min) is too low and may not provide sufficient ventilation. Choice B (10 to 12 breaths/min) is slightly below the recommended range, which may not be optimal for effective resuscitation. Choice D (20 to 30 breaths/min) is too high and may lead to overventilation and potential harm to the infant by causing hypocapnia.

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