Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following are not infectious causes of diarrhea?

• A. Allergy
• B. Bacteria
• C. Parasite
• D. Virus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Diarrhea can be caused by various infectious agents such as bacteria, parasites, and viruses. Allergy, on the other hand, is a non-infectious cause of diarrhea. When an individual with a food allergy consumes the specific food they are allergic to, it can trigger diarrhea as a part of the allergic reaction.

2. You are assessing a 26-year-old woman who is 38 weeks pregnant and is in labor. She tells you that she was pregnant once before but had a miscarriage at 19 weeks. You should document her obstetric history as:

• A. gravida 2, para 1.
• B. gravida 2, para 0.
• C. gravida 1, para 1.
• D. gravida 0, para 2.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In obstetrics, gravida indicates the number of pregnancies, including the current one. Para indicates the number of pregnancies carried to viability (20 weeks or more). Since the patient has been pregnant twice but only carried one pregnancy past 20 weeks, her obstetric history should be documented as gravida 2, para 0. The miscarriage at 19 weeks does not contribute to the para count. Choice A (gravida 2, para 1) would indicate that she has had two pregnancies with one resulting in a live birth, which is incorrect. Choice C (gravida 1, para 1) would indicate that she has had one pregnancy with one live birth, which does not reflect her obstetric history. Choice D (gravida 0, para 2) would indicate that she has never been pregnant past 20 weeks, which is also inaccurate.

3. What is a non-pharmacological management option for measles?

• A. Tepid sponging
• B. Oral hygiene
• C. Eye care
• D. N/A

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Tepid sponging is a non-pharmacological management option for measles. It helps reduce fever and discomfort by using lukewarm water to gently sponge the body. This method is commonly used to alleviate symptoms associated with measles. Oral hygiene and eye care are important for overall health but do not directly manage measles symptoms like tepid sponging does. Choice D, N/A, is incorrect as there are non-pharmacological management options available for measles.

4. Your assessment of a newborn reveals cyanosis to the chest and face and a heart rate of 90 beats/min. What should you do first?

• A. Dry the infant briskly.
• B. Suction the mouth.
• C. Begin artificial ventilations.
• D. Begin chest compressions.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a newborn with cyanosis to the chest and face and a heart rate of 90 beats/min, the priority action is to begin artificial ventilations. A heart rate below 100 beats/min with cyanosis indicates a need for immediate respiratory support to improve oxygenation. Drying the infant briskly or suctioning the mouth may be necessary later but are not the initial priority. Chest compressions are not indicated as the heart rate is above 60 beats/min.

5. The healthcare provider assesses the newborn's ears to be parallel to the outer and inner canthus of the eye. The healthcare provider documents this finding to be which of the following?

• A. A normal position
• B. A possible chromosomal abnormality
• C. Facial paralysis
• D. Prematurity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When the top of the ear (pinna) is parallel to the outer and inner canthus of the eye, it is considered a normal position in a newborn. This alignment is an important assessment to ensure normal development and anatomy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the parallel alignment of the ears to the outer and inner canthus of the eye is not indicative of a possible chromosomal abnormality, facial paralysis, or prematurity. It is simply a normal anatomical finding in a newborn.

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