Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following are not infectious causes of diarrhea?

• A. Allergy
• B. Bacteria
• C. Parasite
• D. Virus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Diarrhea can be caused by various infectious agents such as bacteria, parasites, and viruses. Allergy, on the other hand, is a non-infectious cause of diarrhea. When an individual with a food allergy consumes the specific food they are allergic to, it can trigger diarrhea as a part of the allergic reaction.

2. What is the appropriate ventilation rate for an apneic infant?

• A. 8 to 10 breaths/min.
• B. 10 to 12 breaths/min.
• C. 12 to 20 breaths/min.
• D. 20 to 30 breaths/min.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During resuscitation of an apneic infant, the appropriate ventilation rate is 12 to 20 breaths per minute. This rate helps provide adequate oxygenation and ventilation without causing harm to the infant. Choice A (8 to 10 breaths/min) is too low and may not provide sufficient ventilation. Choice B (10 to 12 breaths/min) is slightly below the recommended range, which may not be optimal for effective resuscitation. Choice D (20 to 30 breaths/min) is too high and may lead to overventilation and potential harm to the infant by causing hypocapnia.

3. A postpartum client is experiencing heavy lochia and a boggy uterus. What should be the nurse's initial action?

• A. Administer a uterotonic medication
• B. Encourage the client to void
• C. Perform fundal massage
• D. Increase the client's fluid intake

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct initial action for a postpartum client experiencing heavy lochia and a boggy uterus is to perform fundal massage. Fundal massage helps to firm the uterus and reduce bleeding by promoting uterine contractions, which can assist in preventing postpartum hemorrhage. Administering uterotonic medication may be necessary in some cases but should not be the initial action. Encouraging the client to void and increasing fluid intake can be important interventions but are not the priority in this situation where immediate uterine firmness is needed to control bleeding.

4. When assessing a newborn for jaundice, which area should be examined?

• A. Legs and feet
• B. Chest and abdomen
• C. Face and sclera
• D. Back and buttocks

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When assessing a newborn for jaundice, the healthcare provider should examine the face and sclera. Jaundice is often first noticeable in these areas due to the buildup of bilirubin, causing a yellowish discoloration of the skin and eyes. Examining the legs and feet (Choice A) is not the most appropriate area for identifying jaundice in newborns. Similarly, the chest and abdomen (Choice B) are not the primary areas where jaundice is usually observed. Checking the back and buttocks (Choice D) is also not as useful as examining the face and sclera when assessing for jaundice in newborns.

5. What characteristic indicates that a mass on a newborn's head is a cephalohematoma?

• A. The mass appears on the second day after birth.
• B. The mass grows larger when the newborn cries.
• C. The head appears asymmetrical.
• D. The mass is located on only one side of the head.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A cephalohematoma typically appears between the first and second days after birth, making choice A the correct answer. It results from blood vessel rupture between a cranial bone and the periosteal membrane. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the growth of the mass when the newborn cries, asymmetrical head appearance, or the mass being located on only one side of the head are not specific indicators of a cephalohematoma.

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