Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding family planning?

• A. Family planning services should be made available to those who need them.
• B. It is the responsibility of every parent to determine whether to have children, when, or how many.
• C. Family planning is geared towards individual and family welfare.
• D. The ultimate goal of family planning is to prevent pregnancies.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the ultimate goal of family planning is not solely to prevent pregnancies but to promote individual and family well-being. Family planning encompasses various aspects such as helping individuals and families make informed choices about the number and spacing of their children, access to healthcare services, and overall reproductive health. Option A is correct as making family planning services available to those who need them is essential for promoting reproductive health. Option B is also correct as it emphasizes the role of parents in making decisions about having children. Option C is correct as family planning indeed aims to improve the welfare of individuals and families. Therefore, option D is not correct as the ultimate goal of family planning is not limited to preventing pregnancies, but it includes broader aspects of promoting health and well-being.

2. A client with bipolar disorder is receiving lithium (Lithobid). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Hypernatremia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyponatremia. Lithium can lead to hyponatremia by affecting sodium balance in the body. Hypernatremia (Choice A) is unlikely with lithium use. Hyperglycemia (Choice C) and hypercalcemia (Choice D) are not typically associated with lithium therapy for bipolar disorder.

3. Which finding would be the most characteristic of an acute episode of reactive airway disease?

• A. Auditory gurgling
• B. Inspiratory laryngeal stridor
• C. Auditory expiratory wheezing
• D. Frequent dry coughing

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Auditory expiratory wheezing. Expiratory wheezing is a common sign of reactive airway disease, such as asthma, where airways are constricted, making it difficult to expel air from the lungs. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not typically associated with reactive airway disease. Auditory gurgling may suggest airway secretions or fluid accumulation, inspiratory laryngeal stridor indicates upper airway obstruction, and frequent dry coughing is more commonly seen in conditions like upper respiratory infections or postnasal drip.

4. During the beginning shift assessment of a client with asthma who is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 liters per minute, the nurse would be most concerned about which unreported finding?

• A. Pulse oximetry reading of 89%
• B. Crackles at the base of the lungs on auscultation
• C. Rapid shallow respirations with intermittent wheezes
• D. Excessive thirst with a dry cracked tongue

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Rapid, shallow respirations with intermittent wheezes are concerning as they indicate a potential worsening of the client's asthma. This finding suggests airway narrowing, which can lead to respiratory failure. Immediate intervention is required to address this respiratory distress. A pulse oximetry reading of 89% is low and indicates hypoxemia, but the respiratory pattern described in option C takes priority as it directly reflects the client's respiratory status. Crackles at the base of the lungs suggest fluid accumulation, which is important but not as immediately critical as the respiratory distress in asthma. Excessive thirst and a dry cracked tongue may indicate dehydration, which is relevant but not as urgent as the respiratory compromise presented in option C.

5. The nurse is teaching a group of adults about modifiable cardiac risk factors. Which of the following should the nurse focus on first?

• A. Weight reduction
• B. Stress management
• C. Physical exercise
• D. Smoking cessation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, smoking cessation. Smoking is a major and modifiable risk factor for cardiovascular disease. It is often the highest priority in cardiac risk reduction because stopping smoking has immediate and long-term benefits for heart health. Choices A, B, and C are also important in reducing cardiac risk factors, but smoking cessation takes precedence due to its significant impact on cardiovascular health.

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