HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam 2024
1. What is the priority intervention for a patient experiencing an acute asthma attack?
- A. Administering a bronchodilator
- B. Encouraging the patient to drink fluids
- C. Applying a high-flow oxygen mask
- D. Performing chest physiotherapy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering a bronchodilator is the priority intervention in an acute asthma attack. Bronchodilators help to quickly open the airways, relieve bronchospasm, and improve breathing. Encouraging the patient to drink fluids may be beneficial for other conditions but is not the priority in an acute asthma attack. Applying a high-flow oxygen mask may be necessary in severe cases of respiratory distress but is not the initial priority when managing an acute asthma attack. Performing chest physiotherapy is not indicated as the primary intervention for an acute asthma attack and may not address the immediate need to open the airways and improve breathing.
2. A client tells the PN that she has a family history of cancer and has increased the amount of dairy products in her diet to reduce her risk of getting cancer. How should the PN respond?
- A. Encourage the client to get plenty of exercise in addition to the dietary change
- B. Provide written information about the seven warning signs of cancer
- C. Remind the client to ensure that the dairy products are fortified with Vitamin D
- D. Suggest that an increase in fruits and vegetables is more beneficial
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Increasing fruits and vegetables in the diet is more beneficial in reducing cancer risk due to their high levels of antioxidants and fiber, which help protect against cancer. While exercise is important for overall health, in this context, focusing on fruits and vegetables is more relevant to reducing cancer risk than exercise alone. Providing information about cancer warning signs is not directly addressing the client's dietary choice. While Vitamin D is essential for various health aspects, the primary focus here should be on a diet rich in fruits and vegetables for cancer risk reduction.
3. Which laboratory value is most important to monitor for a patient receiving heparin therapy?
- A. Platelet count
- B. Prothrombin time (PT)
- C. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
- D. International normalized ratio (INR)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Partial thromboplastin time (PTT). PTT is monitored to assess the therapeutic effect of heparin therapy. It helps ensure that the heparin levels are within the desired range to prevent either clotting or excessive bleeding. Platelet count (A) is important but does not directly assess heparin's therapeutic effect. Prothrombin time (PT) (B) and International normalized ratio (INR) (D) are used to monitor patients on warfarin, not heparin therapy.
4. What is the primary function of hemoglobin in red blood cells?
- A. To transport oxygen from the lungs to body tissues
- B. To protect the body from infections
- C. To help in blood clotting
- D. To regulate body temperature
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The primary function of hemoglobin in red blood cells is to transport oxygen from the lungs to body tissues and return carbon dioxide from the tissues to the lungs. Hemoglobin binds to oxygen in the lungs and releases it in the body's tissues. Choice B is incorrect because hemoglobin is not involved in protecting the body from infections. Choice C is incorrect because blood clotting is mainly facilitated by platelets and clotting factors, not hemoglobin. Choice D is incorrect because the regulation of body temperature is mainly controlled by processes like sweating and shivering, not by hemoglobin.
5. Which condition is most commonly associated with a "bull's eye" rash?
- A. Lyme disease
- B. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
- C. Syphilis
- D. Toxoplasmosis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Lyme disease. The "bull's eye" rash, or erythema migrans, is a hallmark of early Lyme disease, caused by the bacterium Borrelia burgdorferi. Choice B, Rocky Mountain spotted fever, presents with a different type of rash. Choice C, Syphilis, typically presents with a painless ulcer and rash but not a "bull's eye" rash. Choice D, Toxoplasmosis, does not typically present with a "bull's eye" rash.
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