HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam 2023
1. Which of the following is a priority for the nurse to include in the teaching of a client who was recently prescribed alprazolam (Xanax) as an oral medication?
- A. Monitor heart rate before taking the medication
- B. Monitor temperature daily
- C. Avoid unprotected exposure to sunlight
- D. Avoid alcohol
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Avoid alcohol.' Alprazolam (Xanax) can have central nervous system depressant effects, which are exacerbated by alcohol. It is crucial to avoid alcohol while taking this medication to prevent severe sedation and respiratory depression. Monitoring heart rate (choice A) is not directly related to alprazolam administration. Monitoring temperature daily (choice B) is not a priority teaching point for a client prescribed alprazolam. Avoiding unprotected exposure to sunlight (choice C) is not specifically linked to the use of alprazolam.
2. At 1200, the practical nurse learns that a client's 0900 dose of an anticonvulsant was not given. The next scheduled dose is at 2100. Which action should the PN take?
- A. Administer half of the missed dose immediately
- B. Administer the missed dose as soon as possible
- C. Give the missed dose with the next scheduled dose
- D. Withhold the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering the missed dose as soon as possible is crucial in this situation. Missing an anticonvulsant dose can lead to breakthrough seizures, which are harmful to the client. Administering the missed dose promptly helps maintain the therapeutic level of the medication and reduces the risk of seizure activity. Giving half the dose may not provide adequate protection against seizures. Delaying the dose until the next scheduled time increases the time the client is without the medication, potentially increasing the risk of seizures. Withholding the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs is not recommended, as prevention is key in managing anticonvulsant therapy.
3. The nurse enters a male client's room to administer routine morning medications, and the client is on the phone. Which action is best for the nurse to take?
- A. Ask another nurse to return with the medication when the client has hung up the phone
- B. Wait for the client to excuse himself from the telephone conversation, and observe the client taking the medication
- C. Return the medication to the client's drawer on the cart and document that the client refused the dose
- D. Leave the medication with the client and let him take it when he finishes the conversation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The best action for the nurse to take in this situation is to wait for the client to excuse himself from the telephone conversation and then observe the client taking the medication. This approach ensures that the client takes the medication as prescribed, promoting compliance and safety. Choice A is not ideal as it involves unnecessary delegation and may lead to confusion. Choice C is incorrect because assuming refusal without direct communication can compromise patient care. Choice D is not recommended as leaving the medication with the client unsupervised may result in non-compliance or potential errors.
4. An older client is admitted to the psychiatric unit for assessment of a recent onset of dementia. The PN notes that in the evening this client often becomes restless, confused, and agitated. Which intervention is most important for the PN to implement?
- A. Ask family members to remain with the client in the evenings from 5 to 8 pm
- B. Administer a prescribed PRN benzodiazepine at the onset of a confused state
- C. Ensure that the client is assigned to a room close to the nurses' station
- D. Postpone administration of nighttime medications until after 11 pm
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Sundowning, a phenomenon where dementia symptoms worsen in the evening, can be managed by ensuring the client is close to the nurses' station for frequent monitoring and quick intervention, if necessary. This reduces the risk of harm and helps manage agitation. Asking family members to remain with the client may not always be feasible and does not address the need for close monitoring. Administering benzodiazepines should not be the first-line intervention for sundowning as it can increase the risk of falls and other adverse effects. Postponing medication administration may disrupt the client's routine and potentially worsen symptoms.
5. What intervention should the PN implement when taking the rectal temperature of an adult client?
- A. Lubricate the tip of the thermometer with a water-based gel.
- B. Gently insert the thermometer 1 inch into the rectum.
- C. Hold the thermometer in place the entire time while taking the temperature.
- D. Place the client in the left lateral position.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When taking a rectal temperature, it is essential to hold the thermometer in place the entire time to ensure safety, accuracy, and prevent the thermometer from slipping out. Choice A, lubricating the tip of the thermometer with a water-based gel, is important for comfort and ease of insertion. Choice B, gently inserting the thermometer 1 inch into the rectum, is more accurate for adults than inserting it 3 inches. Choice D, placing the client in the left lateral position, is not necessary for a rectal temperature measurement.
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