which of the following factors increases the risk of developing a pressure ulcer
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HESI LPN

HESI PN Exit Exam 2023

1. Which of the following factors increases the risk of developing a pressure ulcer?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Immobility is a significant risk factor for pressure ulcers because it leads to prolonged pressure on specific areas of the body, reducing blood flow and leading to tissue breakdown. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. A high-protein diet can actually aid in wound healing and tissue repair. Frequent repositioning helps relieve pressure on bony prominences, reducing the risk of pressure ulcers. Active range of motion exercises can improve circulation and prevent muscle atrophy, thereby reducing the risk of pressure ulcers.

2. What is a priority when providing care for a patient with a newly inserted tracheostomy?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When caring for a patient with a newly inserted tracheostomy, the priority is to monitor for signs of infection and ensure a patent airway. This is crucial to prevent complications such as airway obstruction or infection. While keeping the tracheostomy tube clean and dry is important for overall care, it is not the highest priority when compared to ensuring a patent airway. Providing regular oral hygiene is essential for the patient's comfort but takes a secondary role to maintaining airway patency. Encouraging the patient to cough and deep breathe may be beneficial but is not as critical as monitoring for infection and keeping the airway clear.

3. A client has a prescription for a transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulator (TENS) unit for pain management during the postoperative period following a lumbar laminectomy. Which information should the nurse reinforce about the action of this adjuvant pain modality?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. TENS works by delivering a mild electrical stimulus to the skin, which can help close the 'gates' in the nervous system to block pain signals from reaching the brain, thus reducing pain perception. Choice A is incorrect because TENS does not distract from pain but rather helps manage it. Choice B is incorrect as it describes a different pain management technique involving medication in the spinal canal. Choice C is incorrect because TENS acts peripherally on nerve conduction rather than dulling pain perception in the cerebral cortex.

4. The practical nurse is caring for a client who had a total laryngectomy, left radical neck dissection, and tracheostomy. The client is receiving nasogastric tube feedings via an enteral pump. Today the rate of feeding is increased from 50 ml/hr to 75 ml/hr. What parameter should the PN use to evaluate the client's tolerance to the rate of the feeding?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Monitoring gastric residual volumes helps to assess how well the client is tolerating the increased feeding rate. High residuals may indicate delayed gastric emptying, which could lead to complications like aspiration. This helps in adjusting the feeding plan as necessary. Daily weight (Choice A) is not the most appropriate parameter to evaluate tolerance to feeding rate changes. Bowel sounds (Choice C) and urinary/stool output (Choice D) are important assessments but do not directly indicate tolerance to enteral feeding rate changes.

5. Which type of isolation precaution is required for a patient with tuberculosis (TB)?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Airborne precautions. Tuberculosis (TB) is transmitted via airborne particles, thus requiring airborne precautions to prevent the spread of infection. This includes using an N95 respirator to filter out small infectious particles. Droplet precautions (Choice A) are used for diseases that spread through large respiratory droplets. Contact precautions (Choice B) are for direct or indirect contact with the patient or their environment. Standard precautions (Choice D) are used for all patients to prevent the spread of infection through blood, bodily fluids, non-intact skin, and mucous membranes.

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