Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a 60-year-old man who is scheduled to have coronary bypass surgery in the morning. He tells the nurse that he is afraid that he will die and he is scared of the surgery. What is the best reply for this nurse to give him?

• A. There is no reason to be scared. My father had this surgery, and now he’s playing tennis with his friends almost every day.
• B. I would be scared too. It’s a natural thing to feel. Don’t worry. Everything will be alright.
• C. You’re scared?
• D. The doctor has performed hundreds of successful bypass surgeries. I have a lot of faith in him.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The best reply for the nurse to give the patient is option C: 'You’re scared?' This response reflects empathy and understanding, acknowledging the patient's feelings of fear. By directly addressing the patient's emotions, the nurse encourages further expression of concerns, which is crucial in providing emotional support. Choices A and D may come off as dismissive of the patient's feelings by downplaying his fear or shifting the focus to others' experiences. Choice B, although acknowledging the patient's fear, does not actively engage with the patient's emotions or encourage further discussion.

2. A post-operative client is recovering from a total knee replacement and is prescribed patient-controlled analgesia (PCA). What is the primary advantage of PCA for managing post-operative pain?

• A. It allows for consistent pain control without overmedication.
• B. It eliminates the need for oral pain medication.
• C. It reduces the risk of opioid addiction.
• D. It requires less monitoring by nursing staff.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The primary advantage of PCA for managing post-operative pain is that it allows the client to control the administration of pain medication, leading to consistent pain control without overmedication. Choice B is incorrect as PCA does not eliminate the need for oral pain medication; it supplements it. Choice C is incorrect because while PCA can help reduce opioid consumption, it does not directly reduce the risk of opioid addiction. Choice D is incorrect as PCA actually requires close monitoring by nursing staff to ensure proper use and prevent complications.

3. The UAP reports to the PN that a client refused to bathe for the third consecutive day. Which action is best for the PN to take?

• A. Explain the importance of good hygiene to the client
• B. Ask family members to encourage the client to bathe
• C. Reschedule the bath for the following day
• D. Ask the client why the bath was refused

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best action for the PN to take when a client refuses to bathe is to ask the client why the bath was refused. Understanding the client's reasons for refusing a bath is crucial as it helps to address any underlying issues, such as fear, discomfort, or physical limitations. By communicating directly with the client, the PN can provide appropriate care tailored to the client's needs. Choices A, B, and C do not directly address the root cause of the refusal and may not effectively resolve the issue.

4. In which type of cardiomyopathy does septal involvement occur?

• A. Congestive
• B. Dilated
• C. Hypertrophic
• D. Restrictive

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Septal involvement is a characteristic feature of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, where the septal wall of the heart thickens. This thickening can obstruct blood flow out of the heart, leading to complications such as arrhythmias and heart failure. This differentiates it from other types of cardiomyopathy. In congestive cardiomyopathy (choice A), the heart's chambers become enlarged and weakened, but there is no specific mention of septal involvement. Dilated cardiomyopathy (choice B) involves dilation and impaired contraction of the heart chambers, not specifically septal thickening. Restrictive cardiomyopathy (choice D) is characterized by stiffening of the heart muscle, affecting its ability to fill properly, without direct involvement of the septum.

5. During a routine prenatal visit at the antepartal clinic, a multipara at 35-weeks gestation presents with 2+ edema of the ankles and feet. Which additional information should the PN report to the RN?

• A. Due date
• B. Blood pressure
• C. Gravida and parity
• D. Fundal height

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Blood pressure is the most critical information to report to the RN in this scenario. The presence of edema, along with high blood pressure, can be indicative of preeclampsia, a severe condition in pregnancy. Monitoring blood pressure is essential for assessing the patient's condition and taking appropriate actions if necessary. Choices A, C, and D are not as urgent in this situation. The due date, gravida, and parity are important for overall assessment but do not address the immediate concern of potential preeclampsia. Fundal height is used to assess fetal growth and position but is not the priority when edema and high blood pressure are present.

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