Nursing Elites

1. What is the primary treatment for minimal change nephrotic syndrome?

• A. corticosteroids
• B. antihypertensive agents
• C. long-term diuretics
• D. increased fluids to promote diuresis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corticosteroids are the mainstay of treatment for minimal change nephrotic syndrome due to their immunosuppressive effects, which help reduce proteinuria and control the disease progression. Antihypertensive agents are not the primary treatment for this condition and are typically used to manage hypertension that may result from nephrotic syndrome. Long-term diuretics are not indicated in the treatment of minimal change nephrotic syndrome as they do not address the underlying cause. Increasing fluids to promote diuresis is not a recommended treatment for minimal change nephrotic syndrome, as it can exacerbate edema and fluid overload in these patients.

2. The healthcare provider is caring for an infant with suspected pyloric stenosis. Which clinical manifestation would indicate pyloric stenosis?

• A. abdominal rigidity and pain on palpation
• B. rounded abdomen and hypoactive bowel sounds
• C. visible peristalsis and weight loss
• D. distention of lower abdomen and constipation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Visible peristalsis and weight loss are classic clinical manifestations of pyloric stenosis. Visible peristalsis refers to the wave-like movements in the abdomen caused by the stomach trying to empty into the intestines due to the obstruction at the pylorus. Weight loss is often seen due to inadequate feeding and vomiting associated with this condition. Choices A, B, and D are not typical of pyloric stenosis. Abdominal rigidity and pain on palpation are more indicative of conditions like peritonitis. A rounded abdomen and hypoactive bowel sounds are more suggestive of conditions like constipation or bowel obstruction. Distention of the lower abdomen and constipation are not specific to pyloric stenosis and may be seen in various gastrointestinal issues.

3. The nurse is caring for an infant with candidal diaper rash. Which topical agent would the nurse expect the healthcare provider to order?

• A. Corticosteroids.
• B. Antifungals.
• C. Antibiotics.
• D. Retinoids.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Antifungals. Candidal diaper rash is caused by a yeast infection and is best treated with antifungal agents. Corticosteroids (choice A) may worsen fungal infections by suppressing the immune response. Antibiotics (choice C) are used to treat bacterial infections, not fungal infections like candidal diaper rash. Retinoids (choice D) are not typically used to treat candidal diaper rash in infants; they are more commonly used for dermatological conditions like acne.

4. The nurse is caring for a child who has been admitted for a sickle cell crisis. What would the nurse do first to provide adequate pain management?

• A. Administer a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) as ordered.
• B. Use guided imagery and therapeutic touch.
• C. Administer meperidine as ordered.
• D. Initiate pain assessment with a standardized pain scale.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Initiating pain assessment with a standardized pain scale is crucial in effectively managing pain during a sickle cell crisis. This initial step helps the nurse understand the severity of the pain, which guides subsequent interventions. Administering medications, such as NSAIDs or meperidine, should only be done after a thorough pain assessment to ensure appropriate and individualized treatment. Using guided imagery and therapeutic touch may be beneficial as adjunct interventions, but they should not replace the essential first step of assessing the pain level accurately.

5. The healthcare provider notes that a child has lost 8 pounds after 4 days of hospitalization for acute glomerulonephritis. This is most likely the result of

• A. poor appetite
• B. increased potassium intake
• C. reduction of edema
• D. restriction to bed rest

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In acute glomerulonephritis, weight loss is most likely due to the reduction of edema. Edema is a common symptom of glomerulonephritis, which causes fluid retention and swelling in the body. As treatment progresses and the condition improves, the reduction of edema leads to weight loss. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the underlying pathophysiology of acute glomerulonephritis and its impact on weight loss.

Similar Questions