Nursing Elites

1. What is the primary treatment for minimal change nephrotic syndrome?

• A. corticosteroids
• B. antihypertensive agents
• C. long-term diuretics
• D. increased fluids to promote diuresis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corticosteroids are the mainstay of treatment for minimal change nephrotic syndrome due to their immunosuppressive effects, which help reduce proteinuria and control the disease progression. Antihypertensive agents are not the primary treatment for this condition and are typically used to manage hypertension that may result from nephrotic syndrome. Long-term diuretics are not indicated in the treatment of minimal change nephrotic syndrome as they do not address the underlying cause. Increasing fluids to promote diuresis is not a recommended treatment for minimal change nephrotic syndrome, as it can exacerbate edema and fluid overload in these patients.

2. A 6-year-old with muscular dystrophy was recently injured falling out of bed at home. What intervention should the nurse suggest to prevent further injury?

• A. Recommend raising the bed's side rails when a caregiver is not present.
• B. Suggest a caregiver be present continuously to prevent falls from bed.
• C. Encourage the use of loose restraints while in bed.
• D. Recommend raising the bed's side rails throughout the day and night.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate intervention to prevent further injury is to raise the bed's side rails when a caregiver is not present. This measure helps in preventing falls without the need for constant supervision. Choice B is not practical as continuous caregiver presence may not always be feasible. Choice C is unsafe as loose restraints can pose a strangulation risk. Choice D does not address the need for intervention when a caregiver is absent, potentially leading to an increased risk of falls.

3. When caring for a child diagnosed with asthma, what is an important nursing intervention?

• A. Administering bronchodilators
• B. Encouraging physical activity
• C. Monitoring oxygen saturation
• D. Providing nutritional support

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering bronchodilators is a crucial nursing intervention for a child with asthma as it helps to open the airways and improve breathing. Bronchodilators work by relaxing the muscles around the airways, making breathing easier for the child. Encouraging physical activity may exacerbate asthma symptoms in some cases, so it is not recommended as a primary intervention. Monitoring oxygen saturation is important in assessing respiratory status, but administering bronchodilators would take precedence in this situation. Providing nutritional support is a general nursing intervention and not specific to managing asthma symptoms.

4. While performing a visual inspection of a 30-year-old woman in active labor, you can see the umbilical cord at the vaginal opening. After providing high concentration oxygen, you should next

• A. massage the uterus to facilitate delivery of the fetus
• B. relieve pressure from the cord with your gloved fingers
• C. place the mother on her left side and provide rapid transport
• D. elevate the mother's lower extremities and provide immediate transport

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario described, when the umbilical cord is visible at the vaginal opening, the priority is to relieve pressure from the cord with gloved fingers. This action helps prevent cord compression and ensures continued oxygenation to the fetus, which is crucial for the baby's well-being. Massaging the uterus or elevating the mother's lower extremities is not the correct course of action in this situation and may potentially worsen the condition. Placing the mother on her left side and providing rapid transport is not the immediate step needed to address the visible umbilical cord; relieving pressure from the cord takes precedence to maintain fetal oxygen supply.

5. Following delivery of a newborn, the 21-year-old mother is experiencing mild vaginal bleeding. You note that her heart rate has increased from 90 to 120 beats/min and she is diaphoretic. Management should include

• A. Oxygen, uterine massage, and transport
• B. Oxygen, placement on the left side, and transport
• C. Oxygen, treatment for shock, and uterine massage during transport
• D. Oxygen, internal vaginal pads, and treatment for shock during transport

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the 21-year-old mother is showing signs of hemorrhagic shock with increased heart rate, diaphoresis, and vaginal bleeding. The appropriate management includes providing oxygen to support tissue perfusion, treating for shock to restore adequate circulation, and performing uterine massage to help control bleeding during transport. Options A, B, and D do not address the comprehensive management needed for postpartum hemorrhage in this situation.

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