Nursing Elites

1. What is the primary treatment for minimal change nephrotic syndrome?

• A. corticosteroids
• B. antihypertensive agents
• C. long-term diuretics
• D. increased fluids to promote diuresis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corticosteroids are the mainstay of treatment for minimal change nephrotic syndrome due to their immunosuppressive effects, which help reduce proteinuria and control the disease progression. Antihypertensive agents are not the primary treatment for this condition and are typically used to manage hypertension that may result from nephrotic syndrome. Long-term diuretics are not indicated in the treatment of minimal change nephrotic syndrome as they do not address the underlying cause. Increasing fluids to promote diuresis is not a recommended treatment for minimal change nephrotic syndrome, as it can exacerbate edema and fluid overload in these patients.

2. A child has been diagnosed with classic hemophilia. A nurse teaches the child’s parents how to administer the plasma component factor VIII through a venous port. It is to be given 3 times a week. What should the nurse tell them about when to administer this therapy?

• A. Whenever a bleed is suspected
• B. In the morning on scheduled days
• C. At bedtime while the child is lying quietly in bed
• D. On a regular schedule at the parents’ convenience

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering factor VIII in the morning on scheduled days ensures that there is a consistent level of the plasma component throughout the day, especially when the child is active. This timing helps to maintain adequate levels of factor VIII to prevent bleeding episodes. Choice A is incorrect because administering factor VIII only when a bleed is suspected would not provide the consistent prophylactic coverage needed for children with hemophilia. Choice C is incorrect as bedtime administration may not be practical for ensuring the plasma component is available during the child's active hours. Choice D is incorrect because administering factor VIII on a regular schedule, rather than at specific times of the day, may not optimize its effectiveness in preventing bleeding episodes.

3. A parent brings an 18-month-old toddler to the clinic. The parent states, 'My child is so difficult to please, has temper tantrums, and annoys me by throwing food from the table.' What is the nurse’s best response?

• A. “Toddlers need discipline to prevent the development of antisocial behaviors.”
• B. “Toddlers are learning to assert independence, and this behavior is expected at this age.”
• C. “It is best to leave the toddler alone in the crib after calmly explaining why the behavior is unacceptable.”
• D. “This is the way a toddler expresses needs, and this behavior is acceptable during the initiative stage of development.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Toddlers are learning to assert independence, and this behavior is expected at this age.' At 18 months old, toddlers are in the stage of developing autonomy and testing boundaries. It is normal for them to exhibit behaviors such as temper tantrums and defiance as they explore their independence. Choice A is incorrect as discipline at this age is more about setting limits and providing guidance rather than preventing antisocial behaviors. Choice C is inappropriate as leaving a toddler alone in a crib after explaining unacceptable behavior is not a recommended approach for managing toddler behavior. Choice D is incorrect as the described behavior is typical of toddlers asserting independence, not related to the initiative stage of development. The best response involves acknowledging the child's developmental stage and understanding that these behaviors are part of their normal growth and development.

4. A child with a diagnosis of leukemia is admitted to the hospital with a fever. What is the priority nursing intervention?

• A. Administering antibiotics
• B. Administering antipyretics
• C. Providing nutritional support
• D. Monitoring for signs of infection

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority nursing intervention for a child with leukemia admitted to the hospital with a fever is to monitor for signs of infection. Children with leukemia are immunocompromised, making them more susceptible to infections. Monitoring for signs of infection helps in early detection and timely intervention, which is crucial in preventing complications. Administering antibiotics (choice A) may be necessary if an infection is suspected or confirmed, but the priority is to assess for signs of infection first. Administering antipyretics (choice B) may help reduce fever, but it does not address the underlying cause, which could be an infection. Providing nutritional support (choice C) is important for overall health but is not the priority when a child with leukemia presents with a fever, as infection needs to be ruled out or managed first.

5. After a discussion with the healthcare provider, the parents of an infant with patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) ask the nurse to explain once again what PDA is. How should the nurse respond?

• A. The diameter of the aorta is enlarged.
• B. The wall between the right and left ventricles is open.
• C. It is a narrowing of the entrance to the pulmonary artery.
• D. It is a connection between the pulmonary artery and the aorta.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) is an abnormal connection between the pulmonary artery and the aorta. In a fetus, the ductus arteriosus is a normal connection between these two vessels, allowing blood to bypass the lungs. However, it should close shortly after birth. When it remains open (patent), it leads to PDA. Choices A, B, and C do not accurately describe PDA. Choice A describes an enlarged aorta, choice B describes a ventricular septal defect, and choice C describes pulmonary stenosis, which are different cardiac conditions.

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