which is instituted for the therapeutic management of minimal change nephrotic syndrome
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Pediatric HESI 2023

1. What is the primary treatment for minimal change nephrotic syndrome?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corticosteroids are the mainstay of treatment for minimal change nephrotic syndrome due to their immunosuppressive effects, which help reduce proteinuria and control the disease progression. Antihypertensive agents are not the primary treatment for this condition and are typically used to manage hypertension that may result from nephrotic syndrome. Long-term diuretics are not indicated in the treatment of minimal change nephrotic syndrome as they do not address the underlying cause. Increasing fluids to promote diuresis is not a recommended treatment for minimal change nephrotic syndrome, as it can exacerbate edema and fluid overload in these patients.

2. The school nurse is presenting a class to a group of students about common overuse disorders. Which disorder would the school nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Osgood-Schlatter disease. This condition is a common overuse injury that affects the knee. Osgood-Schlatter disease typically occurs in children and adolescents who are involved in activities that require frequent running, jumping, and kicking. It is characterized by pain, swelling, and tenderness at the tibial tuberosity, where the patellar tendon inserts into the tibia. Choice A, Dislocated radial head, is not an overuse disorder but rather a form of elbow injury where the head of the radius bone is displaced from its normal position. Choice B, Transient synovitis of the hip, is a self-limiting condition that causes hip pain and limping in children. It is not typically considered an overuse disorder. Choice D, Scoliosis, is a condition characterized by an abnormal lateral curvature of the spine. While it may be related to certain activities or postures, it is not primarily classified as an overuse disorder.

3. At 0345, you receive a call for a woman in labor. Upon arriving at the scene, you are greeted by a very anxious man who tells you that his wife is having her baby 'now.' This man escorts you into the living room where a 25-year-old woman is lying on the couch in obvious pain. After determining that delivery is not imminent, you begin transport. While en route, the mother tells you that she feels the urge to push. You assess her and see the top of the baby's head bulging from the vagina. What is your most appropriate first action?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action in this scenario is to advise your partner to stop the ambulance and assist with the delivery. When the mother feels the urge to push and you see the baby's head bulging from the vagina, it indicates an imminent delivery. Stopping the ambulance allows for a safer environment for the delivery of the baby and ensures that immediate assistance can be provided to both the mother and the newborn. Allowing the head to deliver before checking for the cord (Choice A) may delay necessary interventions in case of complications. Instructing the mother to take short, quick breaths (Choice C) is not appropriate when the baby's head is already visible. Preparing for an emergency delivery and opening the obstetrics kit (Choice D) is important but should come after stopping the ambulance and assisting with the imminent birth.

4. The instructor is educating a group of students about myelination in a child. Which statement by the students indicates that the teaching was successful?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Myelination occurs in a cephalocaudal (head-to-toe) pattern, improving nerve function progressively. Choice A is incorrect because myelination continues beyond 4 years of age and into adolescence. Choice C is incorrect as myelination speeds up nerve impulses rather than slowing them down. Choice D is incorrect because myelination increases the specificity and efficiency of nerve impulses, making them more focused and precise.

5. A parent brings an 18-month-old toddler to the clinic. The parent states, 'My child is so difficult to please, has temper tantrums, and annoys me by throwing food from the table.' What is the nurse’s best response?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Toddlers are learning to assert independence, and this behavior is expected at this age.' At 18 months old, toddlers are in the stage of developing autonomy and testing boundaries. It is normal for them to exhibit behaviors such as temper tantrums and defiance as they explore their independence. Choice A is incorrect as discipline at this age is more about setting limits and providing guidance rather than preventing antisocial behaviors. Choice C is inappropriate as leaving a toddler alone in a crib after explaining unacceptable behavior is not a recommended approach for managing toddler behavior. Choice D is incorrect as the described behavior is typical of toddlers asserting independence, not related to the initiative stage of development. The best response involves acknowledging the child's developmental stage and understanding that these behaviors are part of their normal growth and development.

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