Nursing Elites

1. What is the primary treatment for minimal change nephrotic syndrome?

• A. corticosteroids
• B. antihypertensive agents
• C. long-term diuretics
• D. increased fluids to promote diuresis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corticosteroids are the mainstay of treatment for minimal change nephrotic syndrome due to their immunosuppressive effects, which help reduce proteinuria and control the disease progression. Antihypertensive agents are not the primary treatment for this condition and are typically used to manage hypertension that may result from nephrotic syndrome. Long-term diuretics are not indicated in the treatment of minimal change nephrotic syndrome as they do not address the underlying cause. Increasing fluids to promote diuresis is not a recommended treatment for minimal change nephrotic syndrome, as it can exacerbate edema and fluid overload in these patients.

2. An infant who had cardiac surgery for a congenital defect is to be discharged. What should the nurse emphasize to the parents regarding administering the prescribed antibiotic?

• A. Give the antibiotic between feedings.
• B. Ensure that the antibiotic is administered as prescribed.
• C. Shake the bottle thoroughly before administering the antibiotic.
• D. Keep the antibiotic in the refrigerator after opening the bottle.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Ensure that the antibiotic is administered as prescribed.' It's crucial to stress the importance of following the prescribed antibiotic regimen to prevent infections and promote proper healing after cardiac surgery. Choice A is incorrect because it does not address the fundamental aspect of adherence to the prescription. Choice C is incorrect as shaking the bottle may not be necessary for all antibiotics and is not a critical instruction in this context. Choice D is incorrect as storage instructions are not directly related to the administration of the antibiotic as prescribed, which is the primary concern in this scenario.

3. Following delivery of a newborn, the 21-year-old mother is experiencing mild vaginal bleeding. You note that her heart rate has increased from 90 to 120 beats/min and she is diaphoretic. Management should include

• A. oxygen, uterine massage, and transport
• B. oxygen, placement on the left side, and transport
• C. oxygen, treatment for shock, and uterus massage during transport
• D. oxygen, internal vaginal pads, and treatment of shock during transport

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Postpartum hemorrhage can lead to shock due to excessive bleeding. Oxygen should be provided to support oxygenation. Treatment for shock, which includes maintaining vital signs and perfusion, is crucial. Uterine massage helps prevent further bleeding by promoting uterine contraction. This combination of interventions is essential for managing postpartum hemorrhage effectively. Choices A, B, and D lack the comprehensive approach needed for managing postpartum hemorrhage, as they do not address the treatment of shock, which is vital in this scenario.

4. The parents of a newborn with phenylketonuria (PKU) need help and support in adhering to specific dietary restrictions. They ask the nurse, “How long will our child have to be on this diet?” How should the nurse respond?

• A. “We are still not sure; you should discuss this with your health care provider.”
• B. “If your baby does well, foods containing protein can gradually be introduced.”
• C. “Your child needs to be on this diet at least through adolescence and into adulthood.”
• D. “This is a lifelong problem, and it is recommended that dietary restrictions must be continued.”

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: “This is a lifelong problem, and it is recommended that dietary restrictions must be continued.” PKU requires a lifelong adherence to a specific diet low in phenylalanine to prevent cognitive and developmental issues. Phenylalanine buildup can lead to irreversible damage, making it crucial for individuals with PKU to maintain dietary restrictions throughout their lives. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not address the lifelong nature of dietary restrictions necessary for PKU management.

5. The nurse is caring for a boy with probable intussusception. He had diarrhea before admission, but while waiting for the administration of air pressure to reduce the intussusception, he passes a normal brown stool. Which nursing action is the most appropriate?

• A. notify the practitioner
• B. measure abdominal girth
• C. auscultate for bowel sounds
• D. take vital signs, including blood pressure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The passage of a normal brown stool in a child with intussusception could indicate spontaneous reduction of the intussusception. This change in the patient's condition is significant, requiring prompt notification of the practitioner for further evaluation and management. While measuring abdominal girth (Choice B) is important for assessing abdominal distention, it is not the priority when a potential spontaneous reduction may have occurred. Auscultating for bowel sounds (Choice C) and taking vital signs, including blood pressure (Choice D), are routine nursing assessments but do not address the immediate need to inform the practitioner of a possible change in the patient's condition that necessitates urgent attention.

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