Nursing Elites

1. What is the primary treatment for minimal change nephrotic syndrome?

• A. corticosteroids
• B. antihypertensive agents
• C. long-term diuretics
• D. increased fluids to promote diuresis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corticosteroids are the mainstay of treatment for minimal change nephrotic syndrome due to their immunosuppressive effects, which help reduce proteinuria and control the disease progression. Antihypertensive agents are not the primary treatment for this condition and are typically used to manage hypertension that may result from nephrotic syndrome. Long-term diuretics are not indicated in the treatment of minimal change nephrotic syndrome as they do not address the underlying cause. Increasing fluids to promote diuresis is not a recommended treatment for minimal change nephrotic syndrome, as it can exacerbate edema and fluid overload in these patients.

2. At 0345, you receive a call for a woman in labor. Upon arriving at the scene, you are greeted by a very anxious man who tells you that his wife is having her baby 'now.' This man escorts you into the living room where a 25-year-old woman is lying on the couch in obvious pain. The woman states that her contractions are occurring every 4 to 5 minutes and lasting approximately 30 seconds each. Which of the following questions would be most appropriate to ask at this point?

• A. Has your bag of waters broken yet?
• B. Have you had regular prenatal care?
• C. At how many weeks gestation are you?
• D. How many other children do you have?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Asking about the gestational age is crucial in determining the stage of labor and assessing potential complications. This information helps in understanding the progress of labor and making appropriate decisions regarding the management of the delivery process. Choices A, B, and D are not as pertinent at this point in providing immediate care or assessing the situation compared to knowing the gestational age.

3. A parent and 4-year-old child who recently emigrated from Colombia arrive at the pediatric clinic. The child has a temperature of 102°F, is irritable, and has a runny nose. Inspection reveals a rash and several small, red, irregularly shaped spots with blue-white centers in the mouth. What illness does the nurse suspect the child has?

• A. Measles
• B. Chickenpox
• C. Fifth disease
• D. Scarlet fever

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should suspect measles in this child. The presence of a high fever, irritability, runny nose, rash, and Koplik spots (small, red spots with blue-white centers in the mouth) are classic signs of measles. Measles is a highly contagious viral illness that can lead to serious complications if not managed promptly. Chickenpox (choice B) presents with a different rash pattern and does not typically involve Koplik spots. Fifth disease (choice C) and scarlet fever (choice D) also have distinct clinical presentations and are not characterized by the specific symptoms described in this case.

4. A child is brought to the clinic after tripping over a rock. The child states, 'I twisted my ankle,' and is given a diagnosis of a sprain. What intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the discharge instructions for this child?

• A. For the first 24 hours, apply ice for 20 minutes and then remove for 60 minutes.
• B. Bed rest with the leg elevated for 36 hours.
• C. May take an NSAID for pain as needed.
• D. Use a compression dressing for 72 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for a sprained ankle is to apply ice for 20 minutes every hour for the first 24 hours, then remove for 60 minutes to prevent tissue damage. This regimen helps reduce swelling and pain. Bed rest with the leg elevated for an extended period (36 hours) may lead to stiffness and decreased range of motion. While NSAIDs can be used for pain, they may not be necessary if pain is manageable with ice and rest. Using a compression dressing for 72 hours continuously may impede proper circulation and delay healing by restricting blood flow.

5. An 18-month-old was brought to the emergency department by her mother, who states, 'I think she broke her arm.' The child is sent for a radiograph to confirm the fracture. Additional assessment of the child leads the nurse to suspect possible child abuse. Which type of fracture would the radiograph most likely reveal?

• A. Plastic deformity.
• B. Buckle fracture.
• C. Spiral fracture.
• D. Greenstick fracture.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A spiral fracture is characterized by a twisting injury, often indicating child abuse due to the mechanism involved. This type of fracture is commonly seen in non-accidental trauma cases. Plastic deformity is not typically seen on radiographs but refers to a change in the shape of a bone without breaking. Buckle fractures are incomplete fractures commonly seen in children due to their softer bones. Greenstick fractures are also incomplete fractures, but they do not typically raise suspicion of child abuse as spiral fractures do.

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