Nursing Elites

1. Which intervention is most important for a client with chronic heart failure?

• A. Encourage fluid intake to prevent dehydration
• B. Monitor the client's weight daily to assess fluid balance
• C. Limit sodium intake to reduce fluid retention
• D. Restrict daily activity to prevent fatigue

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's weight daily to assess fluid balance in clients with chronic heart failure. Monitoring weight helps in detecting fluid retention or fluid loss, which is crucial in managing heart failure. Encouraging fluid intake to prevent dehydration (choice A) may worsen fluid overload in heart failure patients. Limiting sodium intake (choice C) is essential but not the most important intervention compared to monitoring weight. Restricting daily activity (choice D) is not recommended as it is important for clients with heart failure to engage in appropriate levels of physical activity to maintain their overall health.

2. A nurse is observing an assistive personnel (AP) caring for a client. For which of the following actions by the AP should the nurse intervene?

• A. Providing care in the hallway
• B. Reporting client information in the hallway
• C. Helping another client use the restroom
• D. Feeding the client too quickly

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because reporting client information in the hallway violates privacy regulations, compromising patient confidentiality. Providing care in the hallway (choice A) may not be ideal but is not a direct violation. Helping another client use the restroom (choice C) shows the AP's willingness to assist but is not a concern unless it compromises the current client's safety. Feeding the client too quickly (choice D) is a potential concern for aspiration but may not require immediate intervention as addressing hydration and swallowing strategies can help prevent complications.

3. What are common risk factors for urinary tract infections (UTIs)?

• A. Poor hygiene and dehydration
• B. Increased sexual activity and pregnancy
• C. Use of urinary catheters and prolonged bed rest
• D. Family history and obesity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Poor hygiene and dehydration are common risk factors for urinary tract infections (UTIs). While choices B, C, and D may play a role in certain cases, poor hygiene and dehydration are more universally recognized as key factors contributing to UTIs. Increased sexual activity and pregnancy (choice B) can also increase the risk of UTIs, but they are not as universal as poor hygiene and dehydration. Choices C and D, the use of urinary catheters and prolonged bed rest, and family history and obesity, respectively, are risk factors for UTIs but are not as commonly associated as poor hygiene and dehydration.

4. A nurse is preparing to perform a sterile dressing change. Which of the following actions should the nurse take when setting up the sterile field?

• A. Place the cap from the solution sterile side up on a clean surface.
• B. Open the outermost flap of the sterile kit away from the body.
• C. Place the sterile dressing within 1.25 cm (0.5 in) of the edge of the sterile field.
• D. Set up the sterile field 5 cm (2 in) above waist level.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To maintain the sterility of the field, the nurse should place the cap from the solution sterile side up on a clean surface. This action helps prevent contamination. Choice B is incorrect because opening the outermost flap toward the body increases the risk of introducing contaminants onto the sterile field. Choice C is incorrect as the sterile dressing should be placed at least 2.5 cm (1 in) from the edge of the sterile field to prevent accidental contamination. Choice D is incorrect because setting up the sterile field above waist level could lead to inadvertent contact and compromise the field's sterility.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?

• A. Hyperactivity
• B. Hypervigilance
• C. Restlessness
• D. Avoidance of social situations

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypervigilance. Individuals with PTSD often experience hypervigilance, which involves being overly alert, easily startled, and constantly scanning their environment for potential threats. This heightened state of awareness is a common response to the trauma experienced. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Hyperactivity is not typically a primary manifestation of PTSD; restlessness may occur but is not as characteristic as hypervigilance, and although avoidance of social situations can be a symptom of PTSD, hypervigilance is more directly associated with the disorder.

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