Nursing Elites

1. Which intervention is most important for a client with chronic heart failure?

• A. Encourage fluid intake to prevent dehydration
• B. Monitor the client's weight daily to assess fluid balance
• C. Limit sodium intake to reduce fluid retention
• D. Restrict daily activity to prevent fatigue

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's weight daily to assess fluid balance in clients with chronic heart failure. Monitoring weight helps in detecting fluid retention or fluid loss, which is crucial in managing heart failure. Encouraging fluid intake to prevent dehydration (choice A) may worsen fluid overload in heart failure patients. Limiting sodium intake (choice C) is essential but not the most important intervention compared to monitoring weight. Restricting daily activity (choice D) is not recommended as it is important for clients with heart failure to engage in appropriate levels of physical activity to maintain their overall health.

2. Which of the following interventions is the best to improve the healing of a pressure ulcer for a client with a low serum albumin level?

• A. Provide high-calorie, high-protein supplements
• B. Consult a dietitian to create a high-protein diet plan
• C. Administer nutritional supplements
• D. Increase IV fluids to prevent dehydration

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Consulting a dietitian to create a high-protein diet plan is the best intervention for a client with a low serum albumin level to promote healing. This approach ensures that the client receives the specific nutrients needed for wound healing. Providing high-calorie, high-protein supplements (choice A) may not address the specific nutritional deficiencies of the client. Administering nutritional supplements (choice C) is vague and may not target the necessary nutrients for wound healing. Increasing IV fluids (choice D) is important for hydration but does not directly address the nutritional needs of the client to improve ulcer healing.

3. What are the potential complications of a patient receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN)?

• A. Infection and electrolyte imbalance
• B. Hyperglycemia and sepsis
• C. Kidney failure and hypovolemia
• D. Fluid overload and liver damage

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Infection and electrolyte imbalance are common complications of TPN. Infection can occur due to the invasive nature of TPN, which provides a direct route for pathogens. Electrolyte imbalances can arise from the composition of the TPN solution or improper monitoring. Hyperglycemia and sepsis (Choice B) are potential complications but are not as directly associated with TPN as infection and electrolyte imbalance. Kidney failure and hypovolemia (Choice C) are less common complications of TPN. Fluid overload and liver damage (Choice D) are potential complications but are not as frequently observed as infection and electrolyte imbalance.

4. How should a healthcare provider respond to a patient experiencing a seizure?

• A. Protect the airway and monitor for post-ictal confusion
• B. Administer anticonvulsant medications
• C. Apply restraints to prevent injury
• D. Place the patient in a side-lying position

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a patient is experiencing a seizure, the immediate priority is to ensure their safety by placing them in a side-lying position. This helps prevent aspiration in case of vomiting and maintains an open airway. Administering anticonvulsant medications is not within the scope of a healthcare provider's immediate response during a seizure. Applying restraints can potentially harm the patient by restricting movement and causing injury. Monitoring for post-ictal confusion is important after the seizure has ended, but the primary concern during the seizure is ensuring the patient's safety.

5. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. International normalized ratio (INR) of 2.5
• B. Platelet count of 180,000/mm³
• C. Prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds
• D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 30 seconds

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds is below the therapeutic range for warfarin and indicates a need for dosage adjustment. The correct answer is C. A normal International normalized ratio (INR) for a client on warfarin therapy is usually between 2.0 to 3.0; therefore, an INR of 2.5 is within the expected range. A platelet count of 180,000/mm³ is within the normal range (150,000 to 450,000/mm³) and does not require immediate reporting. A partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 30 seconds is also within the normal range (25-35 seconds) and does not indicate a need for urgent action.

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