Nursing Elites

1. Which nursing action is a priority when managing a client with a wound infection?

• A. Change the wound dressing every 24 hours
• B. Perform a wound culture before administering antibiotics
• C. Cleanse the wound with alcohol-based solutions
• D. Apply a wet-to-dry dressing to the wound

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Performing a wound culture before administering antibiotics is crucial when managing a client with a wound infection. This step helps identify the specific pathogens causing the infection, allowing for the prescription of the most effective antibiotics. Changing the wound dressing every 24 hours (Choice A) is important for wound care but not the priority when an infection is present. Cleansing the wound with alcohol-based solutions (Choice C) can be too harsh and may delay wound healing. Applying a wet-to-dry dressing (Choice D) is not recommended for infected wounds as it can cause trauma to the wound bed during dressing changes.

2. A nurse is collecting data from a client who has a newly applied cast to the right lower extremity. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Capillary refill of 1 second
• B. Capillary refill of 5 seconds
• C. Pitting edema
• D. Shortness of breath

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When assessing a client with a newly applied cast, the nurse should expect a capillary refill of approximately 2 seconds, as this indicates adequate circulation. A capillary refill longer than 3 seconds suggests impaired circulation, which is abnormal. Therefore, a capillary refill of 5 seconds is the finding the nurse should expect. Pitting edema and shortness of breath are not typically directly related to a newly applied cast and should not be expected findings in this scenario.

3. What is the most appropriate intervention for a client with phlebitis at the IV site?

• A. Apply a warm compress to the site
• B. Discontinue the IV and notify the provider
• C. Increase the IV flow rate to prevent dehydration
• D. Monitor the site for signs of infection

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for a client with phlebitis at the IV site is to discontinue the IV and notify the provider. Phlebitis is inflammation of the vein, and continuing the IV can lead to complications such as infection or thrombosis. Applying a warm compress may provide symptomatic relief but does not address the root cause. Increasing the IV flow rate is not indicated and may worsen the inflammation. Monitoring for signs of infection is important, but the priority is to remove the source of inflammation by discontinuing the IV.

4. The nurse is caring for an 80-year-old client with Parkinson's disease. Which of the following nursing goals is MOST realistic and appropriate in planning care for this client?

• A. Facilitate the client in returning to usual activities of daily living
• B. Maintain optimal function within the client's limitations
• C. Assist the client in preparing for a peaceful and dignified death
• D. Delay the progression of the disease process in the client

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Maintaining optimal function within the client's limitations is the most realistic and appropriate nursing goal when caring for an 80-year-old client with Parkinson's disease. This goal focuses on maximizing the client's abilities and quality of life while acknowledging the impact of the disease. Option A is less realistic as returning to usual activities may not always be achievable in the case of Parkinson's disease. Option C is not appropriate as it does not address the client's current condition and care needs. Option D is less realistic as Parkinson's disease is progressive, and delaying its progression may not be entirely feasible.

5. What are the signs and symptoms of opioid withdrawal, and how should they be managed?

• A. Nausea, sweating, and increased heart rate; manage with methadone
• B. Pain and restlessness; manage with naloxone
• C. Hallucinations and muscle cramps; manage with clonidine
• D. Severe vomiting and seizures; manage with benzodiazepines

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The signs and symptoms of opioid withdrawal include nausea, sweating, and increased heart rate. Methadone is commonly used to manage opioid withdrawal symptoms by alleviating them. Choice B, managing with naloxone, is incorrect as naloxone is primarily used for opioid overdose reversal, not withdrawal. Choice C, managing with clonidine, is incorrect as clonidine is used to manage some symptoms of withdrawal, such as anxiety, agitation, and hypertension, but not hallucinations. Choice D, managing with benzodiazepines, is incorrect as benzodiazepines are not typically used as first-line treatment for opioid withdrawal; they may be considered in specific cases but are not a standard approach.

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