Nursing Elites

1. What are the primary differences between left-sided and right-sided heart failure?

• A. Left-sided: Pulmonary congestion; Right-sided: Systemic edema
• B. Right-sided: Pulmonary congestion; Left-sided: Systemic edema
• C. Left-sided: Systemic edema; Right-sided: Pulmonary congestion
• D. Right-sided: Pulmonary congestion; Left-sided: Heart failure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Left-sided: Pulmonary congestion; Right-sided: Systemic edema." Left-sided heart failure primarily affects the lungs, leading to pulmonary congestion, which manifests as symptoms like shortness of breath and cough. On the other hand, right-sided heart failure causes systemic congestion and edema, often presenting as swelling in the legs and abdomen due to fluid retention. Choice B is incorrect because it swaps the features of left-sided and right-sided heart failure. Choice C is incorrect as it also incorrectly switches the characteristics of the two types of heart failure. Choice D is incorrect because it inaccurately associates left-sided heart failure with pulmonary congestion and right-sided heart failure with heart failure itself, which is not a distinguishing feature.

2. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical records of a client who has a pressure ulcer. Which of the following is an expected finding?

• A. Serum albumin level of 3 g/dL
• B. HDL level of 90 mg/dL
• C. Norton scale score of 18
• D. Braden scale score of 20

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL is indicative of poor nutrition, which is commonly associated with pressure ulcers. This finding suggests that the client may be at risk for developing or already has a pressure ulcer due to malnutrition. High-density lipoprotein (HDL) level of 90 mg/dL (Choice B) is not directly related to pressure ulcers. The Norton scale (Choice C) is used to assess a client's risk of developing pressure ulcers, not as a finding in a client with an existing pressure ulcer. The Braden scale (Choice D) is also a tool used to assess the risk of developing pressure ulcers, not a finding in a client with an existing pressure ulcer.

3. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?

• A. The client is experiencing an adverse reaction to rifampin.
• B. The client's seizure disorder is no longer under control.
• C. The client is showing evidence of phenytoin toxicity.
• D. The client is having adverse effects due to combination antimicrobial therapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.

4. A nurse is teaching a client who has hypertension about dietary modifications. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Increase sodium intake
• B. Reduce sodium intake to less than 1,500 mg per day
• C. Limit caffeine intake
• D. Increase caffeine intake to improve focus

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Reduce sodium intake to less than 1,500 mg per day.' For clients with hypertension, reducing sodium intake is crucial as it helps manage blood pressure. High sodium intake can lead to fluid retention and increased blood pressure. Choice A is incorrect because increasing sodium intake would worsen hypertension. Choice C is also correct as limiting caffeine intake is beneficial for managing hypertension. Choice D is incorrect as increasing caffeine intake can elevate blood pressure, which is detrimental for clients with hypertension.

5. What is the nurse's priority when caring for a client with a tracheostomy who is showing signs of respiratory distress?

• A. Administer a bronchodilator
• B. Suction the tracheostomy
• C. Notify the physician immediately
• D. Increase the oxygen flow rate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to suction the tracheostomy. When a client with a tracheostomy is experiencing respiratory distress, the priority intervention is to clear the airway by suctioning the tracheostomy to remove secretions that may be obstructing the air passage. Administering a bronchodilator (Choice A) may be considered if bronchospasm is present, but the immediate focus should be on clearing the airway. Notifying the physician (Choice C) is important but should not delay the immediate intervention of suctioning. Increasing the oxygen flow rate (Choice D) may provide temporary relief, but addressing the root cause of the distress by suctioning is the priority.

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