Nursing Elites

1. What are the signs and symptoms of hyperkalemia and how should it be managed?

• A. Muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias; administer calcium gluconate
• B. Confusion and bradycardia; administer insulin and glucose
• C. Fatigue and irregular heart rate; administer diuretics
• D. Nausea and vomiting; administer sodium bicarbonate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The signs and symptoms of hyperkalemia include muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias, making choice A correct. Hyperkalemia can lead to dangerous cardiac effects, and calcium gluconate is used to stabilize the heart by antagonizing the effects of potassium. Choices B, C, and D describe symptoms and interventions that are not typically associated with hyperkalemia. Confusion and bradycardia are not common in hyperkalemia, and insulin and glucose are used in hyperkalemia only under specific circumstances. Fatigue and irregular heart rate are vague symptoms, and diuretics are not the primary treatment for hyperkalemia. Nausea and vomiting are nonspecific symptoms and sodium bicarbonate is not indicated for the management of hyperkalemia.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has diabetes mellitus and is receiving insulin. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. A fasting blood glucose of 90 mg/dL
• B. A blood glucose level of 200 mg/dL
• C. A hemoglobin A1c of 6%
• D. A fasting blood glucose of 100 mg/dL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A blood glucose level of 200 mg/dL indicates hyperglycemia, which may necessitate insulin adjustment to better control the client's blood sugar levels. A fasting blood glucose of 90 mg/dL (choice A) is within the normal range, a hemoglobin A1c of 6% (choice C) is indicative of good long-term blood sugar control, and a fasting blood glucose of 100 mg/dL (choice D) is also within the normal range. Therefore, these findings do not require immediate reporting to the provider.

3. The nurse is caring for a manic client in the seclusion room, and it is time for lunch. It is MOST appropriate for the nurse to take which of the following actions?

• A. Take the client to the dining room with 1:1 supervision
• B. Inform the client they may go to the dining room when they control their behavior
• C. Hold the meal until the client is able to come out of seclusion
• D. Serve the meal to the client in the seclusion room

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the scenario described, the manic client is in the seclusion room, and it is most appropriate for the nurse to serve the meal to the client in the seclusion room. This action helps maintain the client's nutritional needs while managing their behavior. Taking the client to the dining room with 1:1 supervision (Choice A) may pose safety risks both for the client and others. Informing the client they may go to the dining room when they control their behavior (Choice B) may not be feasible in a manic state. Holding the meal until the client is able to come out of seclusion (Choice C) can lead to nutritional deficiencies and does not address the immediate need for nutrition during the episode of mania.

4. What are the key nursing assessments for a patient receiving enteral feeding?

• A. Monitor gastric residual volume and check for abdominal distension
• B. Ensure the correct placement of the feeding tube
• C. Assess for signs of dehydration and electrolyte imbalances
• D. Elevate the head of the bed to prevent aspiration

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor gastric residual volume and check for abdominal distension. These assessments are critical to evaluate the patient's tolerance to enteral feeding. Monitoring gastric residual volume helps determine gastric emptying, while checking for abdominal distension can identify complications like bowel obstruction. Choices B, C, and D are important aspects of enteral feeding care but are not the primary assessments. Ensuring the correct placement of the feeding tube is crucial for safety, assessing for signs of dehydration and electrolyte imbalances is essential for overall patient well-being, and elevating the head of the bed is vital to prevent aspiration. However, these are not the key assessments specifically related to enteral feeding.

5. Which dietary advice is most appropriate for a client with chronic kidney disease?

• A. Increase intake of fruits and vegetables
• B. Limit intake of potassium-rich foods
• C. Increase intake of dairy products
• D. Reduce intake of protein-rich foods

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate dietary advice for a client with chronic kidney disease is to limit intake of potassium-rich foods. In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys have difficulty filtering potassium from the blood, leading to high levels that can be harmful. Therefore, reducing potassium intake is crucial to prevent complications. Choices A, C, and D are not the best options for individuals with chronic kidney disease. Increasing intake of fruits and vegetables (choice A) may actually increase potassium consumption. Increasing intake of dairy products (choice C) can lead to higher phosphorus and potassium levels. Reducing protein-rich foods (choice D) is not the primary focus in the early stages of chronic kidney disease, as protein is necessary for overall health unless kidney function declines significantly.

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