what are the risk factors for developing hypertension
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ATI NCLEX PN Predictor Test

1. What are the risk factors for developing hypertension?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: High sodium diet and lack of physical activity. These are established risk factors for developing hypertension as they contribute to elevated blood pressure. Choice B, low potassium intake and excessive alcohol consumption, may also impact blood pressure but are not as strongly associated with hypertension as high sodium intake and lack of physical activity. Choice C, frequent exercise and a low cholesterol diet, are actually beneficial for reducing the risk of hypertension. Choice D, smoking and family history, are more closely linked to other health conditions such as cardiovascular diseases, rather than being primary risk factors for hypertension.

2. A client with hypokalemia is commonly expected to present with which of the following findings?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Muscle weakness. Hypokalemia is characterized by low potassium levels in the blood, which can lead to muscle weakness. This occurs because potassium is essential for proper muscle function, and a deficiency can impair muscle strength. Nausea (choice B) is not a typical finding associated with hypokalemia. Tingling sensation (choice C) is more commonly linked to issues like nerve damage or poor blood circulation, rather than hypokalemia. Increased thirst (choice D) is not a direct symptom of hypokalemia; it is more commonly seen in conditions like diabetes or dehydration.

3. A client with COPD is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with COPD is to encourage pursed-lip breathing. Pursed-lip breathing helps maintain airway patency by preventing the collapse of small airways during exhalation, improving breathing efficiency. Administering oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula may be appropriate for some COPD patients but is not the priority intervention. Positioning the client in high Fowler's position may help improve breathing but is not as specific as pursed-lip breathing for COPD. Encouraging deep breathing and coughing may be beneficial in other respiratory conditions, but it is not the most effective intervention for COPD.

4. A nurse manager is updating protocols for belt restraints. Which of the following guidelines should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Document the client's condition every 15 minutes. When using belt restraints, it is crucial to document the client's condition regularly to ensure their safety and well-being. This guideline allows for ongoing assessment of the client's need for restraints and any potential adverse effects. Choice B is incorrect as restraints should not be attached to the bed frame but to a non-moving part of the bed to prevent harm in case of bed movement. Choice C is incorrect as PRN (as needed) restraint prescription should not be a routine practice and should only be considered after other interventions have been attempted. Choice D is incorrect as restraints should be removed and reevaluated based on the client's condition, not solely on a fixed time schedule.

5. How should a healthcare provider manage a patient with dehydration?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Dehydration management involves a comprehensive approach that includes monitoring fluid intake to assess the severity of dehydration, encouraging oral rehydration to replenish fluids orally if the patient can tolerate it, and administering IV fluids in severe cases where oral intake is insufficient. Choosing just one of these options may not address the diverse needs of patients with dehydration. Therefore, selecting 'All of the above' is the most appropriate response as it encompasses the various strategies required for effective dehydration management.

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