ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2024
1. Which dietary advice is most appropriate for a client with chronic kidney disease?
- A. Increase intake of fruits and vegetables
- B. Limit intake of potassium-rich foods
- C. Increase intake of dairy products
- D. Reduce intake of protein-rich foods
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most appropriate dietary advice for a client with chronic kidney disease is to limit intake of potassium-rich foods. In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys have difficulty filtering potassium from the blood, leading to high levels that can be harmful. Therefore, reducing potassium intake is crucial to prevent complications. Choices A, C, and D are not the best options for individuals with chronic kidney disease. Increasing intake of fruits and vegetables (choice A) may actually increase potassium consumption. Increasing intake of dairy products (choice C) can lead to higher phosphorus and potassium levels. Reducing protein-rich foods (choice D) is not the primary focus in the early stages of chronic kidney disease, as protein is necessary for overall health unless kidney function declines significantly.
2. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory report of a client who is receiving filgrastim. Which of the following laboratory values should the healthcare professional monitor to determine the effectiveness of the treatment?
- A. WBC count.
- B. Serum potassium.
- C. Hemoglobin level.
- D. Serum creatinine.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Filgrastim works by stimulating the production of white blood cells. Therefore, monitoring the white blood cell (WBC) count is essential to assess the effectiveness of the treatment. Choice B, serum potassium, is not directly affected by filgrastim therapy. Choice C, hemoglobin level, is important but not the primary indicator of filgrastim's effectiveness. Choice D, serum creatinine, is unrelated to the action of filgrastim and would not reflect its effectiveness.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled for a bronchoscopy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. The client is anxious about the procedure.
- B. The client has not eaten for 8 hours.
- C. The client has a reported allergy to shellfish.
- D. The client has a platelet count of 100,000/mm³.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A platelet count of 100,000/mm³ is low and increases the risk of bleeding during the bronchoscopy. This finding should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and possible intervention. Choices A, B, and C are not as critical in this situation. Anxiety about the procedure is common and can be managed with appropriate interventions. Not eating for 8 hours is a standard pre-procedure requirement to prevent aspiration during sedation. A reported allergy to shellfish is important to note but is not directly related to the risk of complications during a bronchoscopy.
4. What is the appropriate action for a healthcare professional when administering a blood transfusion?
- A. Verify the patient's identity
- B. Monitor vital signs
- C. Stay with the patient during the first 15 minutes
- D. Stop the transfusion if a reaction occurs
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The appropriate action for a healthcare professional when administering a blood transfusion is to verify the patient's identity. This step is essential to ensure that the correct blood product is given to the right patient, preventing any errors or adverse reactions. While monitoring vital signs and staying with the patient during the initial phase of the transfusion are also important steps, the primary action of verifying the patient's identity takes precedence to uphold patient safety and prevent any potential harm.
5. When reviewing the medical record of a client with dementia, what should the nurse prioritize addressing?
- A. Mild confusion in the morning
- B. Restlessness and agitation
- C. Incontinence
- D. Frequent wandering at night
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When caring for clients with dementia, addressing restlessness and agitation is a priority as it can lead to distress, safety risks, and potential harm to the client or others. Restlessness and agitation are common behavioral symptoms of dementia and can indicate unmet needs, discomfort, or confusion. Managing these symptoms promptly can help improve the client's quality of life and prevent complications such as falls, injuries, or escalation of challenging behaviors. While other issues like mild confusion, incontinence, and wandering are also important to address, managing restlessness and agitation takes precedence due to its immediate impact on the client's well-being and safety.
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