Nursing Elites

1. Which dietary advice is most appropriate for a client with chronic kidney disease?

• A. Increase intake of fruits and vegetables
• B. Limit intake of potassium-rich foods
• C. Increase intake of dairy products
• D. Reduce intake of protein-rich foods

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate dietary advice for a client with chronic kidney disease is to limit intake of potassium-rich foods. In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys have difficulty filtering potassium from the blood, leading to high levels that can be harmful. Therefore, reducing potassium intake is crucial to prevent complications. Choices A, C, and D are not the best options for individuals with chronic kidney disease. Increasing intake of fruits and vegetables (choice A) may actually increase potassium consumption. Increasing intake of dairy products (choice C) can lead to higher phosphorus and potassium levels. Reducing protein-rich foods (choice D) is not the primary focus in the early stages of chronic kidney disease, as protein is necessary for overall health unless kidney function declines significantly.

2. A client with diabetes is being discharged. What is the most important teaching point?

• A. Monitor blood sugar levels once in the morning
• B. Administer insulin before meals as prescribed
• C. Take medication only when feeling unwell
• D. Monitor glucose levels weekly

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important teaching point for a client with diabetes being discharged is to administer insulin before meals as prescribed. This is crucial for managing blood sugar levels effectively and preventing complications. Monitoring blood sugar levels once in the morning (Choice A) is not sufficient for proper diabetes management, as levels can fluctuate throughout the day. Taking medication only when feeling unwell (Choice C) is not recommended as diabetes treatment is based on a regular schedule. Monitoring glucose levels weekly (Choice D) is not frequent enough to provide the necessary information for managing diabetes on a day-to-day basis.

3. A nurse is assisting with monitoring a client who is at 40 weeks of gestation and is in active labor. The nurse recognizes late decelerations on the fetal monitor tracing. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Apply oxygen at 10 L/min via face mask
• B. Position the client on their side
• C. Call for a Cesarean delivery
• D. Administer oxytocin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Late decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency, and the priority nursing action is to improve placental perfusion. Positioning the client on their side, particularly the left side, can enhance blood flow to the placenta and fetus by reducing pressure on the vena cava and increasing cardiac output. Applying oxygen, although helpful, is not the initial priority in this situation. Calling for a Cesarean delivery is not warranted unless other interventions fail to correct the late decelerations. Administering oxytocin can worsen the condition by increasing uterine contractions, exacerbating fetal distress.

4. What are the key differences between systolic and diastolic heart failure?

• A. Systolic: Reduced ejection fraction; Diastolic: Preserved ejection fraction
• B. Systolic: Preserved ejection fraction; Diastolic: Reduced ejection fraction
• C. Systolic: Right-sided heart failure; Diastolic: Left-sided heart failure
• D. Systolic: Pulmonary congestion; Diastolic: Systemic congestion

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Systolic heart failure is characterized by reduced ejection fraction, meaning the heart is not pumping effectively. Diastolic heart failure, on the other hand, is characterized by preserved ejection fraction, indicating that the heart has difficulty relaxing and filling properly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the key differences between systolic and diastolic heart failure.

5. A healthcare provider is collecting data from a client who has multiple sclerosis. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect?

• A. Fever
• B. Ataxia
• C. Nystagmus
• D. Fatigue

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Ataxia, which refers to difficulty with coordination, is a common symptom seen in individuals with multiple sclerosis. Nystagmus, the involuntary eye movement, can also occur in multiple sclerosis but is not as common as ataxia. Fatigue is a common symptom in multiple sclerosis, but ataxia is more specific. Fever is not a typical finding associated with multiple sclerosis.

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