ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2024
1. Which dietary advice is most appropriate for a client with chronic kidney disease?
- A. Increase intake of fruits and vegetables
- B. Limit intake of potassium-rich foods
- C. Increase intake of dairy products
- D. Reduce intake of protein-rich foods
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most appropriate dietary advice for a client with chronic kidney disease is to limit intake of potassium-rich foods. In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys have difficulty filtering potassium from the blood, leading to high levels that can be harmful. Therefore, reducing potassium intake is crucial to prevent complications. Choices A, C, and D are not the best options for individuals with chronic kidney disease. Increasing intake of fruits and vegetables (choice A) may actually increase potassium consumption. Increasing intake of dairy products (choice C) can lead to higher phosphorus and potassium levels. Reducing protein-rich foods (choice D) is not the primary focus in the early stages of chronic kidney disease, as protein is necessary for overall health unless kidney function declines significantly.
2. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory report of a client who is receiving filgrastim. Which of the following laboratory values should the healthcare professional monitor to determine the effectiveness of the treatment?
- A. WBC count.
- B. Serum potassium.
- C. Hemoglobin level.
- D. Serum creatinine.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Filgrastim works by stimulating the production of white blood cells. Therefore, monitoring the white blood cell (WBC) count is essential to assess the effectiveness of the treatment. Choice B, serum potassium, is not directly affected by filgrastim therapy. Choice C, hemoglobin level, is important but not the primary indicator of filgrastim's effectiveness. Choice D, serum creatinine, is unrelated to the action of filgrastim and would not reflect its effectiveness.
3. A client is scheduled for a lumbar puncture. The nurse should assist the client into which of the following positions?
- A. Supine with head elevated
- B. Lateral recumbent
- C. Prone with arms at sides
- D. Sitting with back rounded
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct position for a lumbar puncture is the lateral recumbent position. This position allows the spine to curve naturally, widening the spaces between the vertebrae, making it easier and safer to perform the procedure. Supine with head elevated (Choice A) would not provide the proper positioning for a lumbar puncture as it does not allow for proper access to the lumbar area. Prone with arms at sides (Choice C) would not be suitable as it would not facilitate the procedure. Sitting with back rounded (Choice D) is also incorrect as it does not allow for the proper alignment of the spine needed for a lumbar puncture.
4. A nurse is receiving change-of-shift report for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?
- A. A client with pneumonia who had new onset of confusion
- B. A client with diabetes who had low blood sugar overnight
- C. A client with a leg fracture who needs pain medication
- D. A client whose urinary output was 100 mL for the past 12 hours
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. New confusion in a client with pneumonia could indicate hypoxia or a worsening condition, requiring immediate attention. Option B, a client with diabetes having low blood sugar overnight, is a concerning condition but not as urgent as potential hypoxia. Option C, a client with a leg fracture needing pain medication, and option D, a client with decreased urinary output, are important but do not take precedence over addressing a potentially critical respiratory issue.
5. A client with newly diagnosed type I diabetes mellitus is being seen by the home health nurse. The physician orders include: 1,200-calorie ADA diet, 15 units of NPH insulin before breakfast, and check blood sugar qid. When the nurse visits the client at 5 PM, the nurse observes the man performing a blood sugar analysis. The result is 50 mg/dL. The nurse would expect the client to be
- A. Confused with cold, clammy skin and a pulse of 110
- B. Lethargic with hot, dry skin and rapid, deep respirations
- C. Alert and cooperative with a BP of 130/80 and respirations of 12
- D. Short of breath, with distended neck veins and a bounding pulse of 96
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Low blood sugar levels (50 mg/dL) typically cause confusion, cold clammy skin, and an increased pulse (tachycardia). Option A correctly describes the expected symptoms of hypoglycemia, which include confusion due to the brain's inadequate glucose supply, cold and clammy skin due to sympathetic nervous system activation, and an increased pulse (110 bpm) as the body reacts to low blood sugar levels. Options B, C, and D describe symptoms that are not typically associated with hypoglycemia. Lethargy, hot dry skin, rapid deep respirations, normal vital signs, shortness of breath, distended neck veins, and bounding pulse are more indicative of other conditions or normal physiological responses, not hypoglycemia.
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