Nursing Elites

1. Which dietary advice is most appropriate for a client with chronic kidney disease?

• A. Increase intake of fruits and vegetables
• B. Limit intake of potassium-rich foods
• C. Increase intake of dairy products
• D. Reduce intake of protein-rich foods

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate dietary advice for a client with chronic kidney disease is to limit intake of potassium-rich foods. In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys have difficulty filtering potassium from the blood, leading to high levels that can be harmful. Therefore, reducing potassium intake is crucial to prevent complications. Choices A, C, and D are not the best options for individuals with chronic kidney disease. Increasing intake of fruits and vegetables (choice A) may actually increase potassium consumption. Increasing intake of dairy products (choice C) can lead to higher phosphorus and potassium levels. Reducing protein-rich foods (choice D) is not the primary focus in the early stages of chronic kidney disease, as protein is necessary for overall health unless kidney function declines significantly.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has pneumonia and new onset confusion. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Increase the client's oxygen flow rate
• B. Obtain the client's vital signs
• C. Administer an antibiotic
• D. Notify the provider

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: Increasing the client's oxygen flow rate should be the nurse's first action. Hypoxia is a common complication of pneumonia and can lead to confusion. Providing adequate oxygenation is essential in addressing hypoxia and improving the client's condition.\nOption B: Obtaining vital signs is important but addressing hypoxia takes precedence in the setting of new onset confusion.\nOption C: Administering an antibiotic is important for treating pneumonia but addressing hypoxia and confusion is the priority.\nOption D: Notifying the provider may be necessary but addressing the immediate physiological need of oxygenation should come first.

3. What are the key components of a focused respiratory assessment, and how do you recognize signs of respiratory distress?

• A. Inspection, Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation
• B. Palpation, Inspection, Observation, Auscultation
• C. Percussion, Inspection, Auscultation, Palpation
• D. Inspection, Percussion, Auscultation, Palpation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inspection, Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation. A focused respiratory assessment should start with inspection (observing the breathing pattern), followed by palpation (feeling for abnormalities like crepitus), percussion (evaluating for dullness or hyperresonance), and auscultation (listening to lung sounds). This systematic approach helps to identify signs of respiratory distress, such as abnormal breath sounds, increased respiratory rate, use of accessory muscles, and cyanosis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not follow the standard order and sequence of a focused respiratory assessment.

4. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. International normalized ratio (INR) of 2.5
• B. Platelet count of 180,000/mm³
• C. Prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds
• D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 30 seconds

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds is below the therapeutic range for warfarin and indicates a need for dosage adjustment. The correct answer is C. A normal International normalized ratio (INR) for a client on warfarin therapy is usually between 2.0 to 3.0; therefore, an INR of 2.5 is within the expected range. A platelet count of 180,000/mm³ is within the normal range (150,000 to 450,000/mm³) and does not require immediate reporting. A partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 30 seconds is also within the normal range (25-35 seconds) and does not indicate a need for urgent action.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has right-sided heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Elevated blood glucose.
• B. Decreased urine output.
• C. Dependent edema.
• D. Jaundice.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Dependent edema. In right-sided heart failure, the heart is unable to effectively pump blood to the lungs for oxygenation, leading to fluid accumulation in the systemic circulation. This fluid backs up in the venous system, causing increased pressure in the veins of the body, resulting in dependent edema, usually starting in the lower extremities. Elevated blood glucose (choice A) is not directly related to right-sided heart failure. Decreased urine output (choice B) may occur in conditions like acute kidney injury but is not a specific finding of right-sided heart failure. Jaundice (choice D) is more commonly associated with liver dysfunction, not typically seen in right-sided heart failure.

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