Nursing Elites

1. A client receiving chemotherapy is experiencing fatigue. Which intervention should the nurse implement to manage the client's fatigue?

• A. Encourage the client to take short naps during the day
• B. Instruct the client to remain on bedrest
• C. Provide the client with a high-calorie diet
• D. Encourage the client to increase activity levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention to manage fatigue in a client receiving chemotherapy is to encourage the client to take short naps during the day. Fatigue is a common side effect of chemotherapy, and allowing the client to rest can help combat this symptom. Instructing the client to remain on bedrest (Choice B) is not recommended as it may lead to deconditioning and worsen fatigue. Providing a high-calorie diet (Choice C) may be beneficial for overall nutrition but does not directly address fatigue. Encouraging the client to increase activity levels (Choice D) may exacerbate fatigue instead of alleviating it.

2. What are the key nursing assessments for a patient receiving enteral feeding?

• A. Monitor gastric residual volume and check for abdominal distension
• B. Ensure the correct placement of the feeding tube
• C. Assess for signs of dehydration and electrolyte imbalances
• D. Elevate the head of the bed to prevent aspiration

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor gastric residual volume and check for abdominal distension. These assessments are critical to evaluate the patient's tolerance to enteral feeding. Monitoring gastric residual volume helps determine gastric emptying, while checking for abdominal distension can identify complications like bowel obstruction. Choices B, C, and D are important aspects of enteral feeding care but are not the primary assessments. Ensuring the correct placement of the feeding tube is crucial for safety, assessing for signs of dehydration and electrolyte imbalances is essential for overall patient well-being, and elevating the head of the bed is vital to prevent aspiration. However, these are not the key assessments specifically related to enteral feeding.

3. What is a primary symptom of left-sided heart failure?

• A. Shortness of breath
• B. Edema
• C. Rapid heartbeat
• D. Confusion

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Shortness of breath is a primary symptom of left-sided heart failure. In this condition, the heart's inability to pump effectively leads to fluid backing up into the lungs, causing difficulty breathing. Edema (swelling), rapid heartbeat, and confusion are more commonly associated with other conditions or right-sided heart failure. Edema is often seen in right-sided heart failure due to fluid accumulation in the body, rapid heartbeat can be a general sign of heart issues, and confusion is more related to decreased brain perfusion in severe heart failure cases.

4. When caring for a client diagnosed with delirium, what condition should the nurse prioritize investigating?

• A. Investigate medication history
• B. Investigate sensory deficits
• C. Investigate cognitive functioning
• D. Investigate for signs of infection

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to investigate for signs of infection when caring for a client diagnosed with delirium. Infections can frequently cause or worsen delirium. While investigating medication history, sensory deficits, and cognitive functioning may be important in the overall care of the client, when prioritizing, the nurse should first rule out or address potential infections due to their significant impact on delirium.

5. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?

• A. The client is experiencing an adverse reaction to rifampin.
• B. The client's seizure disorder is no longer under control.
• C. The client is showing evidence of phenytoin toxicity.
• D. The client is having adverse effects due to combination antimicrobial therapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.

Similar Questions