Nursing Elites

1. A nurse at a long-term care facility is part of a team preparing a report on the quality of care at the facility. Which of the following information should the nurse recommend including in the report to demonstrate improvement in care quality?

• A. Increased admissions
• B. 12% fewer urinary tract infections
• C. Increased mortality rate
• D. No changes in staffing

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: '12% fewer urinary tract infections.' Tracking infections, such as UTIs, is crucial in assessing care quality improvements as the reduction in infections indicates better infection control practices and overall quality of care. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increased admissions (Choice A) do not directly reflect improvements in care quality. Increased mortality rate (Choice C) is a negative outcome and demonstrates a decline in care quality. No changes in staffing (Choice D) do not provide direct evidence of care quality improvements.

2. Which of the following is an expected side effect of furosemide?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Increased blood pressure
• D. Increased urine output

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by increasing the excretion of water and electrolytes, including potassium, leading to hypokalemia. Choice A, Bradycardia, is incorrect because furosemide does not typically cause a decrease in heart rate. Choice C, Increased blood pressure, is incorrect as furosemide is actually used to lower blood pressure by reducing fluid volume. Choice D, Increased urine output, is a common effect of furosemide due to its diuretic action but is not an adverse side effect.

3. What are the risk factors for the development of pressure ulcers, and how can they be prevented?

• A. Immobility and poor nutrition
• B. Increased mobility and proper hygiene
• C. Excess moisture and lack of movement
• D. Frequent turning and repositioning

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Immobility and poor nutrition are significant risk factors for pressure ulcers. Immobility leads to prolonged pressure on certain body areas, increasing the risk of tissue damage. Poor nutrition can impair skin integrity and the body's ability to heal. Prevention strategies include frequent turning and repositioning to relieve pressure points. Choice B is incorrect because increased mobility actually reduces the risk of pressure ulcers. Choice C is incorrect as excess moisture can contribute to skin breakdown, but it is not a primary risk factor. Choice D is incorrect as frequent turning and repositioning are part of the prevention measures, not risk factors.

4. Which nursing action is best when managing a client with severe anxiety?

• A. Maintain a calm manner
• B. Help the client identify thoughts prior to the anxiety
• C. Administer anti-anxiety medication
• D. Initiate seclusion if anxiety escalates

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to maintain a calm manner. When managing a client with severe anxiety, the nurse's calm presence can help the client feel more secure and reduce their anxiety levels. It is essential to create a safe and supportive environment. Helping the client identify thoughts prior to anxiety (choice B) may be beneficial in cognitive-behavioral interventions but may not be the initial best action for severe anxiety. Administering anti-anxiety medication (choice C) should be done by a healthcare provider's order and is not the first-line intervention for managing severe anxiety. Initiating seclusion (choice D) should only be considered as a last resort if the client is at risk of harm to themselves or others, as it can further escalate anxiety and should not be the initial action.

5. A charge nurse on a medical-surgical unit is planning assignments for a licensed practical nurse (LPN) who has been sent from the postpartum unit due to a staffing shortage for the shift. Which of the following client assignments should the nurse delegate to the LPN?

• A. A client who is postoperative following a bowel resection with an NGT set to continuous suction.
• B. A client who has fractured a femur yesterday and is experiencing shortness of breath.
• C. A client who sustained a concussion and has unequal pupils.
• D. A client who has an Hgb of 6.3 g/dl and a prescription for packed RBCs.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because the LPN can care for stable clients with complex needs, such as managing an NGT set to continuous suction. Choices B, C, and D involve clients with more acute conditions that require a higher level of assessment and intervention, making them unsuitable for delegation to an LPN. Choice B requires prompt evaluation of the shortness of breath in a client with a recent femur fracture, which is beyond the LPN's scope. Choice C involves a head injury and unequal pupils, indicating the need for neurological assessment and close monitoring. Choice D relates to a critically low hemoglobin level and the need for blood transfusion, requiring careful monitoring and potential intervention beyond the LPN's role.

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