Nursing Elites

1. How should a healthcare provider assess and manage a patient with hyperthyroidism?

• A. Administer beta-blockers and monitor for signs of thyroid storm
• B. Encourage a high-protein, low-iodine diet
• C. Monitor for signs of bradycardia
• D. Provide iodine supplements and check for arrhythmias

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering beta-blockers is the initial management for hyperthyroidism to control symptoms such as tachycardia and tremors. Monitoring for signs of thyroid storm is crucial as it is a life-threatening complication of hyperthyroidism. Encouraging a high-protein, low-iodine diet (choice B) is not the primary intervention for managing hyperthyroidism. Monitoring for signs of bradycardia (choice C) is not typically seen in hyperthyroidism, as it often presents with tachycardia. Providing iodine supplements and checking for arrhythmias (choice D) are contraindicated in hyperthyroidism as they can worsen the condition.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 hr postoperative following rhinoplasty. Which of the following manifestations requires immediate action by the nurse?

• A. Increase in frequency of swallowing.
• B. Moderate sanguineous drainage on the drip pad.
• C. Bruising to the face.
• D. Absent gag reflex.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increase in frequency of swallowing. After rhinoplasty, an increase in frequency of swallowing may indicate possible bleeding, which requires immediate action by the nurse. The client could be experiencing postoperative bleeding, and prompt intervention is necessary to prevent complications. Choice B, moderate sanguineous drainage on the drip pad, is expected in the immediate postoperative period and does not require immediate action unless it becomes excessive. Choice C, bruising to the face, is a common postoperative finding and does not require immediate action unless it is excessive or affects the airway. Choice D, absent gag reflex, would not be expected immediately following rhinoplasty and would require intervention, but the manifestation of increased swallowing frequency is a higher priority due to its association with potential bleeding.

3. A nurse is performing vision testing for a client following a head injury. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a problem with pupil accommodation?

• A. Pupils constrict when shifting gaze from near to far
• B. Pupils constrict when shifting gaze from far to near
• C. Lack of change in pupil size when shifting gaze from near to far
• D. Lack of change in pupil size when shifting gaze from far to near

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pupil accommodation problems are indicated by the lack of change in size when shifting gaze from far to near. The correct answer is D because in pupil accommodation, the pupils should constrict when shifting gaze from far to near in order to adjust for near vision. Choices A and B describe normal responses of pupil constriction when shifting gaze, which do not indicate a problem. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a normal response of pupil size change when shifting gaze from near to far.

4. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?

• A. The client is experiencing an adverse reaction to rifampin.
• B. The client's seizure disorder is no longer under control.
• C. The client is showing evidence of phenytoin toxicity.
• D. The client is having adverse effects due to combination antimicrobial therapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.

5. What is the key management strategy for diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?

• A. Administer insulin
• B. Monitor blood glucose
• C. Administer IV fluids
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The key management strategy for diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) involves a comprehensive approach that includes administering insulin to lower blood glucose levels, monitoring blood glucose levels to ensure they are within the target range, and administering IV fluids to correct dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Choosing 'All of the above' as the correct answer is the most appropriate because all three interventions are essential components of DKA management. Administering insulin alone without addressing fluid status and monitoring blood glucose could lead to complications. Similarly, solely focusing on IV fluids or blood glucose monitoring without insulin administration would not effectively manage DKA.

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