ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023
1. How should a healthcare provider assess and manage a patient with hyperthyroidism?
- A. Administer beta-blockers and monitor for signs of thyroid storm
- B. Encourage a high-protein, low-iodine diet
- C. Monitor for signs of bradycardia
- D. Provide iodine supplements and check for arrhythmias
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering beta-blockers is the initial management for hyperthyroidism to control symptoms such as tachycardia and tremors. Monitoring for signs of thyroid storm is crucial as it is a life-threatening complication of hyperthyroidism. Encouraging a high-protein, low-iodine diet (choice B) is not the primary intervention for managing hyperthyroidism. Monitoring for signs of bradycardia (choice C) is not typically seen in hyperthyroidism, as it often presents with tachycardia. Providing iodine supplements and checking for arrhythmias (choice D) are contraindicated in hyperthyroidism as they can worsen the condition.
2. The physician orders risperidone (Risperdal) for a client with Alzheimer's disease. The nurse anticipates administering this medication to help decrease which of the following behaviors?
- A. Sleep disturbances
- B. Concomitant depression
- C. Agitation and assaultiveness
- D. Confusion and withdrawal
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Agitation and assaultiveness. Risperidone is commonly prescribed for clients with Alzheimer's disease to reduce symptoms of agitation and aggressive behavior. This medication helps in managing challenging behaviors often seen in individuals with Alzheimer's. Choice A, sleep disturbances, is incorrect as risperidone is not primarily indicated for treating sleep issues in Alzheimer's patients. Choice B, concomitant depression, is also incorrect as risperidone is not the first-line treatment for depression in Alzheimer's disease. Choice D, confusion and withdrawal, is incorrect as risperidone does not directly target these symptoms in Alzheimer's patients.
3. A healthcare professional is collecting data from a client who has iron deficiency anemia. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional expect?
- A. Increased energy
- B. Easy bruising
- C. Pale conjunctiva
- D. Weight gain
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Pale conjunctiva is a common sign of iron deficiency anemia due to reduced hemoglobin levels. This results in decreased oxygen-carrying capacity, leading to tissue hypoxia and pallor. 'Increased energy' (choice A) is not typically associated with iron deficiency anemia, as fatigue and weakness are common symptoms. 'Easy bruising' (choice B) is more characteristic of platelet disorders or vitamin deficiencies rather than iron deficiency anemia. 'Weight gain' (choice D) is not a typical finding in iron deficiency anemia; in fact, weight loss is more common due to decreased appetite and overall weakness.
4. A nurse is caring for a 37-year-old woman with metastatic ovarian cancer admitted for nausea and vomiting. The physician orders total parenteral nutrition (TPN), a nutritional consult, and diet recall. Which of the following is the BEST indication that the patient's nutritional status has improved after 4 days?
- A. The patient eats most of the food served to her
- B. The patient has gained 1 pound since admission
- C. The patient's albumin level is 4.0mg/dL
- D. The patient's hemoglobin is 8.5g/dL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: An improved albumin level is the best indicator of improved nutritional status after TPN. Albumin is a key protein that reflects the body's overall nutritional status and is commonly used to assess nutritional health. Choices A, B, and D are not as reliable indicators of improved nutritional status. Choice A may not accurately reflect nutritional improvement as it could be influenced by factors other than nutrition. Choice B may indicate fluid retention or loss rather than true nutritional improvement. Choice D, hemoglobin level, is more related to anemia and oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood, rather than nutritional status.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 41 weeks of gestation and is receiving oxytocin for labor induction. The nurse notes early decelerations on the fetal heart rate monitor. Which of the following nursing actions should the nurse take?
- A. Continue to monitor the fetal heart rate.
- B. Stop the oxytocin infusion.
- C. Perform a vaginal examination.
- D. Initiate an amnioinfusion.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for early decelerations, which are caused by fetal head compression and are considered normal during labor, is to continue monitoring the fetal heart rate. Early decelerations mirror contractions and usually do not require any intervention. Stopping the oxytocin infusion (Choice B) is not necessary as early decelerations are not typically a cause for concern related to oxytocin. Performing a vaginal examination (Choice C) or initiating an amnioinfusion (Choice D) are unnecessary and not indicated specifically for early decelerations.
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