Nursing Elites

1. How should a healthcare professional manage a patient with an indwelling urinary catheter?

• A. Monitor urine output and ensure proper drainage
• B. Administer antibiotics and change the catheter regularly
• C. Monitor for signs of infection and provide catheter care
• D. Provide high-sodium diet and monitor hydration

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring urine output and ensuring proper catheter drainage are crucial aspects of managing a patient with an indwelling urinary catheter. This helps in assessing the patient's renal function, fluid balance, and the patency of the catheter. Administering antibiotics and changing the catheter regularly (Choice B) may not be necessary unless there is an infection present. While monitoring for signs of infection and providing catheter care (Choice C) are important, the primary focus should be on urine output and drainage. Providing a high-sodium diet and monitoring hydration (Choice D) are not directly related to managing an indwelling urinary catheter.

2. Which of the following interventions should the nurse prioritize for a client with dementia who is at risk of falls?

• A. Use restraints to prevent the client from leaving the bed
• B. Use a bed exit alarm system to notify staff when the client attempts to leave the bed
• C. Encourage frequent ambulation with assistance
• D. Raise all four side rails to prevent falls

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Using a bed exit alarm system is a non-restrictive intervention that alerts staff when the client tries to leave the bed, promoting safety and preventing falls. Choice A is incorrect because using restraints can have adverse effects and should be avoided whenever possible. Choice C is not the priority for a client at risk of falls due to dementia as it may increase the risk of falls without proper supervision. Choice D is also not recommended as raising all four side rails can lead to restraint and should be used cautiously, if at all. Therefore, the best option is to use a bed exit alarm system to ensure the client's safety while allowing some freedom of movement.

3. What are the signs and symptoms of opioid withdrawal, and how should they be managed?

• A. Nausea, sweating, and increased heart rate; manage with methadone
• B. Pain and restlessness; manage with naloxone
• C. Hallucinations and muscle cramps; manage with clonidine
• D. Severe vomiting and seizures; manage with benzodiazepines

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The signs and symptoms of opioid withdrawal include nausea, sweating, and increased heart rate. Methadone is commonly used to manage opioid withdrawal symptoms by alleviating them. Choice B, managing with naloxone, is incorrect as naloxone is primarily used for opioid overdose reversal, not withdrawal. Choice C, managing with clonidine, is incorrect as clonidine is used to manage some symptoms of withdrawal, such as anxiety, agitation, and hypertension, but not hallucinations. Choice D, managing with benzodiazepines, is incorrect as benzodiazepines are not typically used as first-line treatment for opioid withdrawal; they may be considered in specific cases but are not a standard approach.

4. What is the proper technique for measuring blood pressure manually?

• A. Use a stethoscope to listen for the Korotkoff sounds
• B. Ensure the patient is seated with the arm supported
• C. Use a manual sphygmomanometer
• D. Deflate the cuff slowly while listening to the heartbeat

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct technique for measuring blood pressure manually involves using a stethoscope to listen for the Korotkoff sounds. Choice B, ensuring the patient is seated with the arm supported, is important but not the specific technique for measuring blood pressure. Choice C, using a manual sphygmomanometer, is a necessary tool but not the technique itself. Choice D, deflating the cuff slowly while listening to the heartbeat, is not the correct technique as the deflation should be done while listening for the Korotkoff sounds to determine the systolic and diastolic blood pressure readings.

5. What are the risk factors for the development of pressure ulcers, and how can they be prevented?

• A. Immobility and poor nutrition
• B. Increased mobility and proper hygiene
• C. Excess moisture and lack of movement
• D. Frequent turning and repositioning

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Immobility and poor nutrition are significant risk factors for pressure ulcers. Immobility leads to prolonged pressure on certain body areas, increasing the risk of tissue damage. Poor nutrition can impair skin integrity and the body's ability to heal. Prevention strategies include frequent turning and repositioning to relieve pressure points. Choice B is incorrect because increased mobility actually reduces the risk of pressure ulcers. Choice C is incorrect as excess moisture can contribute to skin breakdown, but it is not a primary risk factor. Choice D is incorrect as frequent turning and repositioning are part of the prevention measures, not risk factors.

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