ATI LPN
PN ATI Comprehensive Predictor
1. How should a healthcare professional manage a patient with an indwelling urinary catheter?
- A. Monitor urine output and ensure proper drainage
- B. Administer antibiotics and change the catheter regularly
- C. Monitor for signs of infection and provide catheter care
- D. Provide high-sodium diet and monitor hydration
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Monitoring urine output and ensuring proper catheter drainage are crucial aspects of managing a patient with an indwelling urinary catheter. This helps in assessing the patient's renal function, fluid balance, and the patency of the catheter. Administering antibiotics and changing the catheter regularly (Choice B) may not be necessary unless there is an infection present. While monitoring for signs of infection and providing catheter care (Choice C) are important, the primary focus should be on urine output and drainage. Providing a high-sodium diet and monitoring hydration (Choice D) are not directly related to managing an indwelling urinary catheter.
2. What are the key interventions for managing pneumonia?
- A. Administer antibiotics and monitor oxygen levels
- B. Administer bronchodilators and encourage deep breathing
- C. Provide fluids and monitor for dehydration
- D. Administer oxygen and provide bed rest
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer antibiotics and monitor oxygen levels. Antibiotics are essential to treat the infection caused by bacteria in pneumonia, while monitoring oxygen levels helps ensure adequate oxygenation. Administering bronchodilators and encouraging deep breathing, as in choice B, are more commonly associated with managing conditions like asthma or COPD, not pneumonia. Providing fluids and monitoring for dehydration, as in choice C, are important for various conditions but not specific to pneumonia management. Administering oxygen and providing bed rest, as in choice D, may be supportive measures in pneumonia treatment, but the key intervention is administering antibiotics.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours postoperative following an appendectomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Urine output of 20 mL/hr.
- B. Temperature of 36.5°C (97.7°F).
- C. Sanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing.
- D. WBC count of 9,000/mm3.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Urine output of 20 mL/hr. A urine output less than 30 mL/hr can indicate decreased renal perfusion, potentially due to hypovolemia or other issues, and should be reported to the provider. B: A temperature of 36.5°C (97.7°F) falls within the normal range and does not require immediate reporting. C: Sanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing is expected in the early postoperative period and should be monitored but does not need immediate reporting unless excessive. D: A WBC count of 9,000/mm3 is within the normal range and does not indicate an immediate concern.
4. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?
- A. The client is experiencing an adverse reaction to rifampin.
- B. The client's seizure disorder is no longer under control.
- C. The client is showing evidence of phenytoin toxicity.
- D. The client is having adverse effects due to combination antimicrobial therapy.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.
5. What term refers to the agreement to keep promises?
- A. Fidelity
- B. Non-maleficence
- C. Autonomy
- D. Justice
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The term 'fidelity' specifically refers to the agreement to keep promises. Fidelity in healthcare ethics emphasizes the importance of healthcare professionals keeping their commitments to patients. Choice B, 'Non-maleficence,' relates to the ethical principle of doing no harm. Choice C, 'Autonomy,' refers to respecting a patient's right to make decisions about their own healthcare. Choice D, 'Justice,' pertains to fairness and equality in the distribution of healthcare resources.
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