Nursing Elites

1. Which client is at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers?

• A. A 50-year-old client with a fractured femur
• B. A 30-year-old client with diabetes mellitus
• C. A 65-year-old client with limited mobility
• D. A 70-year-old client with a history of stroke

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Clients with limited mobility are at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers due to prolonged pressure on specific areas of the body. This constant pressure can lead to tissue damage and ultimately result in pressure ulcers. While age and medical conditions such as diabetes and a history of stroke can contribute to the risk of pressure ulcers, limited mobility is the most significant factor as it directly affects the ability to shift positions and relieve pressure on vulnerable areas of the body. Therefore, the 65-year-old client with limited mobility is at the highest risk compared to the other clients. The 50-year-old client with a fractured femur may have limited mobility due to the injury, but it is temporary and may not be as prolonged as chronic limited mobility. The 30-year-old client with diabetes mellitus and the 70-year-old client with a history of stroke are at risk for developing pressure ulcers, but their conditions do not directly impact their ability to shift positions and alleviate pressure like limited mobility does.

2. A new father asks the nurse the reason for placing an ophthalmic ointment in his newborn's eyes. What information should the nurse provide?

• A. Possible exposure to an environmental staphylococcus infection can infect the newborn's eyes and cause visual deficits
• B. The newborn is at risk for blindness from a corneal syphilitic infection acquired from a mother's infected vagina
• C. Treatment prevents tear duct obstruction with harmful exudate from a vaginal birth that can lead to dry eyes in the newborn
• D. State law mandates all newborns receive prophylactic treatment to prevent gonorrheal or chlamydial ophthalmic infection

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because informing about state law emphasizes the legal requirement and public health rationale behind prophylactic eye treatment to prevent serious infections like gonorrheal or chlamydial ophthalmic infection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A focuses on staphylococcus infection, which is not the primary concern addressed by the prophylactic ointment. Choice B mentions a specific infection acquired from the mother's infected vagina, which is not the main reason for the ophthalmic ointment. Choice C discusses tear duct obstruction and dry eyes, which are not the primary concerns addressed by the prophylactic ointment.

3. The nurse is preparing to administer a tuberculin skin test (TST). Which area of the body is the preferred site for this injection?

• A. Deltoid muscle
• B. Inner forearm
• C. Abdomen
• D. Thigh

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The inner forearm is the preferred site for administering a tuberculin skin test (TST) due to its easy accessibility, minimal hair interference, and good visibility of the injection site, allowing for accurate interpretation of the test results. The deltoid muscle, abdomen, and thigh are not preferred sites for a TST as they may not provide the optimal conditions required for the test. The deltoid muscle is commonly used for intramuscular injections, the abdomen may have varying subcutaneous fat thickness affecting the test, and the thigh may not provide the necessary visibility for accurate reading.

4. A client is scheduled for a sigmoidoscopy and expresses anxiety about the procedure. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Offer information about the procedure steps
• B. Administer an anxiolytic before the procedure
• C. Encourage the client to discuss their fears
• D. Reassure the client that the procedure is common and safe

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse when a client expresses anxiety about a procedure is to encourage the client to discuss their fears. By allowing the client to express their concerns, the nurse can provide personalized support, address specific worries, and offer tailored information. This approach helps to establish trust, reduce anxiety, and promote a therapeutic nurse-client relationship. Offering information about the procedure steps (Choice A) may be helpful but should come after addressing the client's fears. Administering an anxiolytic (Choice B) should not be the first action as it focuses on symptom management rather than addressing the underlying cause of anxiety. Reassuring the client that the procedure is common and safe (Choice D) is important but should follow active listening and addressing the client's fears.

5. A client with a severe peanut allergy accidentally ingested peanut-containing food and is experiencing anaphylaxis. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer an epinephrine injection
• B. Call for immediate medical help
• C. Monitor airway, breathing, and circulation
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority action for a client experiencing anaphylaxis due to a severe peanut allergy is to administer an epinephrine injection. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis as it can rapidly reverse the severe allergic reaction. While calling for immediate medical help is important, administering epinephrine takes precedence because it can be life-saving in this situation. Monitoring airway, breathing, and circulation is essential in managing anaphylaxis, but administering epinephrine is the priority action to halt the progression of the allergic reaction and stabilize the client's condition. Therefore, 'Administer an epinephrine injection' is the most critical initial intervention.

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