Nursing Elites

1. Which client is at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers?

• A. A 50-year-old client with a fractured femur
• B. A 30-year-old client with diabetes mellitus
• C. A 65-year-old client with limited mobility
• D. A 70-year-old client with a history of stroke

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Clients with limited mobility are at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers due to prolonged pressure on specific areas of the body. This constant pressure can lead to tissue damage and ultimately result in pressure ulcers. While age and medical conditions such as diabetes and a history of stroke can contribute to the risk of pressure ulcers, limited mobility is the most significant factor as it directly affects the ability to shift positions and relieve pressure on vulnerable areas of the body. Therefore, the 65-year-old client with limited mobility is at the highest risk compared to the other clients. The 50-year-old client with a fractured femur may have limited mobility due to the injury, but it is temporary and may not be as prolonged as chronic limited mobility. The 30-year-old client with diabetes mellitus and the 70-year-old client with a history of stroke are at risk for developing pressure ulcers, but their conditions do not directly impact their ability to shift positions and alleviate pressure like limited mobility does.

2. A 9-year-old is receiving vancomycin 400 mg IV every 6 hours for a methicillin-resistant (Beta-lactam-resistant) Staphylococci aureus (MRSA) infection. The medication is diluted in a 100 mL bag of saline with instructions to infuse over one and a half hours. How many mL/hour should the nurse program the infusion pump?

• A. 50
• B. 67
• C. 57
• D. 70

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the infusion rate for vancomycin, you need to divide the total volume by the total time of infusion. In this case, the total volume is 100 mL, and the total time is 1.5 hours. Therefore, 100 mL ÷ 1.5 hours = 67 mL/hour. This means the nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver vancomycin at a rate of 67 mL/hour. Choice A (50) is incorrect as it does not reflect the correct calculation. Choice C (57) is incorrect as it is not the accurate calculation based on the provided information. Choice D (70) is incorrect as it does not correspond to the correct infusion rate calculation.

3. A grand multiparous client had a precipitous delivery in the emergency room 6 hours ago. The client was given oxytocin intramuscularly after birth. The nurse examines the client and observes the pad under her buttocks is full of blood. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Place a new pad and weigh the pad removed to determine blood loss.
• B. Massage the fundus and express clots.
• C. Start an IV and begin an oxytocin infusion.
• D. Clean the perineal area and encourage her to breastfeed.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Massaging the fundus and expressing clots helps contract the uterus and reduce postpartum hemorrhage.

4. During a tonic-clonic seizure, what is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Insert an oral airway
• B. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula
• C. Restrain the client's arms and legs
• D. Protect the client's head from injury

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During a tonic-clonic seizure, the nurse's priority intervention is to protect the client's head from injury. This is crucial to prevent trauma, as head injuries can be severe during a seizure. Inserting an oral airway may cause injury or obstruction during the seizure and is not recommended. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula can be done after ensuring the client's safety. Restraining the client's arms and legs is also not recommended as it can lead to further injury or harm.

5. A client with a diagnosis of anemia is being discharged with a prescription for ferrous sulfate. What should the nurse include in the teaching plan?

• A. Take the medication with milk to enhance absorption
• B. Expect stools to be dark in color
• C. Take the medication before bedtime
• D. Avoid foods high in vitamin C

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Expect stools to be dark in color.' Dark stools are a common side effect of iron supplementation due to the unabsorbed iron, and this is not a cause for concern. Choice A is incorrect because taking iron with milk can decrease its absorption due to calcium binding. Choice C is incorrect as there are no specific recommendations to take ferrous sulfate before bedtime. Choice D is also incorrect as vitamin C actually enhances iron absorption and should not be avoided.

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