HESI LPN
Adult Health 1 Final Exam
1. Which client is at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers?
- A. A 50-year-old client with a fractured femur
- B. A 30-year-old client with diabetes mellitus
- C. A 65-year-old client with limited mobility
- D. A 70-year-old client with a history of stroke
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Clients with limited mobility are at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers due to prolonged pressure on specific areas of the body. This constant pressure can lead to tissue damage and ultimately result in pressure ulcers. While age and medical conditions such as diabetes and a history of stroke can contribute to the risk of pressure ulcers, limited mobility is the most significant factor as it directly affects the ability to shift positions and relieve pressure on vulnerable areas of the body. Therefore, the 65-year-old client with limited mobility is at the highest risk compared to the other clients. The 50-year-old client with a fractured femur may have limited mobility due to the injury, but it is temporary and may not be as prolonged as chronic limited mobility. The 30-year-old client with diabetes mellitus and the 70-year-old client with a history of stroke are at risk for developing pressure ulcers, but their conditions do not directly impact their ability to shift positions and alleviate pressure like limited mobility does.
2. A client with a diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed methotrexate. What is the primary action of this medication?
- A. Increases joint lubrication
- B. Reduces inflammation by suppressing the immune system
- C. Enhances bone density
- D. Stimulates cartilage regeneration
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Methotrexate is an immunosuppressant that works by suppressing the immune system, thereby reducing inflammation in rheumatoid arthritis. Methotrexate does not directly increase joint lubrication (Choice A) as its primary action is on the immune system. Choices C and D are incorrect since methotrexate does not enhance bone density or stimulate cartilage regeneration. It is crucial for healthcare providers to understand the mechanism of action of medications to provide safe and effective care to patients.
3. A client with a severe headache is being assessed by a nurse. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Administer pain relief medication
- B. Check the client's blood pressure
- C. Assess for associated symptoms such as nausea or photophobia
- D. Offer a quiet environment
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client presents with a severe headache, the initial action should be to check their blood pressure. This step is crucial as it can help determine if the headache is related to hypertension or other cardiovascular issues. Administering pain relief medication should only be done after assessing the client's vital signs and confirming the cause of the headache. While assessing for associated symptoms like nausea or photophobia is important for a comprehensive evaluation, it should follow checking the blood pressure to address immediate concerns. Offering a quiet environment is indeed beneficial for the client's comfort, but it is not the priority when dealing with a severe headache.
4. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of congestive heart failure (CHF). Which intervention is most important to include in the plan of care?
- A. Restrict fluid intake
- B. Provide a high-sodium diet
- C. Encourage vigorous exercise
- D. Administer bronchodilators as prescribed
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Restrict fluid intake. Fluid restriction is crucial in the management of congestive heart failure (CHF) as it helps prevent fluid overload, which can exacerbate CHF symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Providing a high-sodium diet would worsen fluid retention and increase the workload of the heart. Encouraging vigorous exercise can strain the heart further in CHF patients. Administering bronchodilators is not the priority intervention for CHF.
5. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a chest tube following a pneumothorax. Which assessment finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber
- B. Absence of drainage in the collection chamber
- C. Tidaling in the water seal chamber
- D. Presence of subcutaneous emphysema around the insertion site
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately. This finding may indicate an air leak, which can compromise the effectiveness of the chest tube in re-expanding the lung. Absence of drainage in the collection chamber (choice B) may signify that the chest tube is blocked, but it does not pose an immediate threat to the client's condition. Tidaling in the water seal chamber (choice C) is an expected finding and indicates proper functioning of the chest tube system. Presence of subcutaneous emphysema around the insertion site (choice D) suggests air leakage but is not as urgent as continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber.
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