HESI LPN
Adult Health 1 Final Exam
1. Which client is at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers?
- A. A 50-year-old client with a fractured femur
- B. A 30-year-old client with diabetes mellitus
- C. A 65-year-old client with limited mobility
- D. A 70-year-old client with a history of stroke
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Clients with limited mobility are at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers due to prolonged pressure on specific areas of the body. This constant pressure can lead to tissue damage and ultimately result in pressure ulcers. While age and medical conditions such as diabetes and a history of stroke can contribute to the risk of pressure ulcers, limited mobility is the most significant factor as it directly affects the ability to shift positions and relieve pressure on vulnerable areas of the body. Therefore, the 65-year-old client with limited mobility is at the highest risk compared to the other clients. The 50-year-old client with a fractured femur may have limited mobility due to the injury, but it is temporary and may not be as prolonged as chronic limited mobility. The 30-year-old client with diabetes mellitus and the 70-year-old client with a history of stroke are at risk for developing pressure ulcers, but their conditions do not directly impact their ability to shift positions and alleviate pressure like limited mobility does.
2. What are the final factors that contribute to blood pressure? (Select all that apply)
- A. Heart rate
- B. Stroke volume
- C. Peripheral resistance
- D. Neuroendocrine hormones
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Neuroendocrine hormones play a crucial role in regulating blood pressure by influencing factors like fluid balance, blood volume, and vessel constriction. While heart rate, stroke volume, and peripheral resistance are important factors affecting blood pressure, the final parameters that directly produce blood pressure are influenced by neuroendocrine hormones. Therefore, choice D is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are involved in the regulation of blood pressure but are not the final parameters that directly produce it.
3. A client is being treated for heart failure. What should the nurse monitor to evaluate treatment effectiveness?
- A. Daily weight
- B. Electrolyte levels
- C. Urine output
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Monitoring daily weight, electrolyte levels, and urine output is crucial in evaluating treatment effectiveness for heart failure. Daily weight monitoring helps assess fluid retention or loss, changes in electrolyte levels can indicate imbalances affecting heart function, and urine output monitoring provides insights into kidney function and fluid balance. Therefore, all options are essential components in assessing the patient's fluid status and response to treatment, making 'All of the above' the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect individually as they only represent partial aspects of monitoring heart failure treatment effectiveness.
4. During a health screening, a client's blood pressure reads 160/100 mm Hg. What should the nurse recommend?
- A. Schedule a follow-up appointment
- B. Start making immediate dietary changes
- C. Begin an exercise program
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A follow-up with a healthcare provider is necessary to assess and manage the newly identified hypertension. While dietary changes and exercise are important for managing high blood pressure, immediate lifestyle modifications without further evaluation by a healthcare provider may not be safe or effective. Option A is the most appropriate initial step to ensure proper assessment and management of the client's blood pressure. Therefore, choices B and C are incorrect in this scenario. Option D is also incorrect because not all options should be implemented without proper medical guidance.
5. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is experiencing shortness of breath. What is the priority nursing intervention?
- A. Administer bronchodilator therapy as prescribed
- B. Encourage deep breathing and coughing exercises
- C. Position the client in a high-Fowler's position
- D. Increase the oxygen flow rate
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The priority nursing intervention for a client with COPD experiencing shortness of breath is to position the client in a high-Fowler's position. This position helps improve lung expansion and ease breathing in COPD patients. While administering bronchodilator therapy as prescribed (Choice A) is important, it is not the priority in this scenario. Encouraging deep breathing and coughing exercises (Choice B) can be beneficial but do not take precedence over positioning for improved respiratory function. Increasing the oxygen flow rate (Choice D) can be considered after the initial positioning to relieve respiratory distress, making it a later intervention.
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