Nursing Elites

1. Which client is at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers?

• A. A 50-year-old client with a fractured femur
• B. A 30-year-old client with diabetes mellitus
• C. A 65-year-old client with limited mobility
• D. A 70-year-old client with a history of stroke

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Clients with limited mobility are at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers due to prolonged pressure on specific areas of the body. This constant pressure can lead to tissue damage and ultimately result in pressure ulcers. While age and medical conditions such as diabetes and a history of stroke can contribute to the risk of pressure ulcers, limited mobility is the most significant factor as it directly affects the ability to shift positions and relieve pressure on vulnerable areas of the body. Therefore, the 65-year-old client with limited mobility is at the highest risk compared to the other clients. The 50-year-old client with a fractured femur may have limited mobility due to the injury, but it is temporary and may not be as prolonged as chronic limited mobility. The 30-year-old client with diabetes mellitus and the 70-year-old client with a history of stroke are at risk for developing pressure ulcers, but their conditions do not directly impact their ability to shift positions and alleviate pressure like limited mobility does.

2. A healthcare provider is reviewing a client's medication list during a routine visit. Which action is most important to ensure medication safety?

• A. Ask the client about any allergies to medications
• B. Review the purposes of each medication
• C. Check for potential drug interactions
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A comprehensive review of allergies, medication purposes, and potential interactions is crucial for ensuring medication safety. Asking about allergies helps prevent adverse reactions, reviewing medication purposes ensures the correct use of each drug, and checking for potential drug interactions reduces the risk of harmful effects when medications interact. Choosing 'All of the above' is the correct answer because all three actions are essential steps to enhance medication safety. Options A, B, and C individually play vital roles in promoting medication safety, making option D the most appropriate choice.

3. During a severe asthma exacerbation in a client, what is the nurse's priority?

• A. Administer a rescue inhaler immediately
• B. Prepare for intubation
• C. Encourage deep breathing exercises
• D. Monitor oxygen saturation levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During a severe asthma exacerbation, the nurse's priority is to administer a rescue inhaler immediately. This action helps open the airways and improve breathing, which is crucial in managing the exacerbation. Choice B, preparing for intubation, would be considered if the client's condition deteriorates and they are unable to maintain adequate oxygenation even after using the rescue inhaler. Encouraging deep breathing exercises (Choice C) may not be appropriate during a severe exacerbation as the client may struggle to breathe. While monitoring oxygen saturation levels (Choice D) is important, the immediate administration of a rescue inhaler takes precedence to address the acute breathing difficulty.

4. A client admitted to the hospital with advanced liver failure related to chronic alcoholism is exhibiting ascites and edema. Which pathophysiological mechanisms should the nurse identify as responsible for the third spacing symptoms? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Portal hypertension.
• B. Sodium and water retention.
• C. Decreased serum albumin.
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In advanced liver failure related to chronic alcoholism, ascites and edema occur due to multiple pathophysiological mechanisms. Portal hypertension contributes to the development of ascites by increasing pressure in the portal venous system. Sodium and water retention exacerbate fluid accumulation in the third space. Decreased serum albumin levels lead to reduced oncotic pressure, contributing to the movement of fluid into the interstitial spaces. Abnormal protein metabolism further disrupts fluid balance. Therefore, all of the options (A, B, and C) are correct in this scenario, making choice D the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C alone do not fully explain the comprehensive pathophysiological mechanisms involved in the development of ascites and edema in this clinical context.

5. A client begins taking an antidepressant drug during the second day of hospitalization. Which assessment is most important for the nurse to include in this client's plan of care while the client is taking the antidepressant?

• A. Appetite
• B. Mood
• C. Withdrawal
• D. Energy level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Monitoring the client's mood is essential when starting an antidepressant to assess for any changes or adverse effects related to the medication. Changes in mood can indicate the effectiveness of the antidepressant or potential side effects. Assessing appetite (Choice A) is important but not as crucial as monitoring mood in this context. Withdrawal symptoms (Choice C) are more relevant when discontinuing antidepressants rather than starting them. Energy level (Choice D) can be influenced by various factors and may not directly reflect the client's response to the antidepressant.

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