Nursing Elites

1. Which client is at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers?

• A. A 50-year-old client with a fractured femur
• B. A 30-year-old client with diabetes mellitus
• C. A 65-year-old client with limited mobility
• D. A 70-year-old client with a history of stroke

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Clients with limited mobility are at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers due to prolonged pressure on specific areas of the body. This constant pressure can lead to tissue damage and ultimately result in pressure ulcers. While age and medical conditions such as diabetes and a history of stroke can contribute to the risk of pressure ulcers, limited mobility is the most significant factor as it directly affects the ability to shift positions and relieve pressure on vulnerable areas of the body. Therefore, the 65-year-old client with limited mobility is at the highest risk compared to the other clients. The 50-year-old client with a fractured femur may have limited mobility due to the injury, but it is temporary and may not be as prolonged as chronic limited mobility. The 30-year-old client with diabetes mellitus and the 70-year-old client with a history of stroke are at risk for developing pressure ulcers, but their conditions do not directly impact their ability to shift positions and alleviate pressure like limited mobility does.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with a history of seizure disorder who is receiving phenytoin (Dilantin). Which laboratory value is most important to monitor?

• A. Phenytoin level
• B. Sodium level
• C. Hemoglobin level
• D. White blood cell count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Monitoring the phenytoin level is crucial to ensure it is within the therapeutic range and to prevent toxicity. Monitoring sodium level is important in clients receiving lithium, not phenytoin. Hemoglobin level and white blood cell count are not directly related to phenytoin therapy monitoring.

3. What intervention has the highest priority for a client with a fourth-degree midline laceration following the vaginal delivery of an 8-pound 10-ounce infant?

• A. Administer a prescribed stool softener
• B. Administer prescribed PRN sleep medications
• C. Encourage breastfeeding to promote uterine involution
• D. Encourage the use of prescribed analgesic perineal sprays

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering a prescribed stool softener is the highest priority intervention for a client with a fourth-degree midline laceration to prevent straining during bowel movements, which could potentially harm the healing laceration. Stool softeners help in maintaining soft stools, reducing the risk of injury to the suture line. Administering PRN sleep medications, encouraging breastfeeding, or promoting the use of analgesic perineal sprays are important aspects of care but are not the priority in this situation. Stool softeners play a crucial role in preventing complications and promoting healing in such cases, making it the most urgent intervention.

4. During the shift change report at an acute care hospital, the charge nurse assigns the Licensed Practical Nurse (LPN) to care for a client. Which task is within the LPN's scope?

• A. Administering IV medication
• B. Conducting initial client assessments
• C. Providing wound care for a stage III pressure ulcer
• D. Teaching a diabetic client about insulin administration

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. LPNs are trained to provide basic nursing care such as wound care. Providing wound care for a stage III pressure ulcer falls within the LPN's scope of practice. Administering IV medication (choice A) requires a higher level of skill and is usually the responsibility of registered nurses. Conducting initial client assessments (choice B) demands more advanced training and is typically performed by registered nurses. Teaching a diabetic client about insulin administration (choice D) involves patient education and is usually within the scope of registered nurses or other healthcare professionals with specific training in diabetic care.

5. The nurse is assessing a client with a suspected diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which clinical sign is most indicative of DVT?

• A. Redness and warmth over the affected area
• B. Decreased peripheral pulses
• C. Cyanosis of the toes
• D. Muscle cramps in the calf

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Redness and warmth over the affected area are classic signs of inflammation, which commonly occur in deep vein thrombosis (DVT) due to the obstruction of blood flow. These symptoms result from the body's inflammatory response to the blood clot. Choices B, C, and D are less indicative of DVT. Decreased peripheral pulses may occur in arterial insufficiency rather than DVT. Cyanosis of the toes indicates decreased oxygenation and is more characteristic of arterial issues. Muscle cramps in the calf are nonspecific and can be caused by various conditions, not solely DVT.

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