Nursing Elites

1. Which client is at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers?

• A. A 50-year-old client with a fractured femur
• B. A 30-year-old client with diabetes mellitus
• C. A 65-year-old client with limited mobility
• D. A 70-year-old client with a history of stroke

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Clients with limited mobility are at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers due to prolonged pressure on specific areas of the body. This constant pressure can lead to tissue damage and ultimately result in pressure ulcers. While age and medical conditions such as diabetes and a history of stroke can contribute to the risk of pressure ulcers, limited mobility is the most significant factor as it directly affects the ability to shift positions and relieve pressure on vulnerable areas of the body. Therefore, the 65-year-old client with limited mobility is at the highest risk compared to the other clients. The 50-year-old client with a fractured femur may have limited mobility due to the injury, but it is temporary and may not be as prolonged as chronic limited mobility. The 30-year-old client with diabetes mellitus and the 70-year-old client with a history of stroke are at risk for developing pressure ulcers, but their conditions do not directly impact their ability to shift positions and alleviate pressure like limited mobility does.

2. Following an open reduction of the tibia, the nurse notes fresh bleeding on the client's cast. What intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Assess the client's hemoglobin levels to determine if the client is in shock
• B. Call the surgeon and prepare to take the client back to the operating room
• C. Outline the area with ink and check it every 15 minutes to monitor for changes in bleeding
• D. No action is required as postoperative bleeding can be expected

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct intervention is to outline the area with ink and check it every 15 minutes to monitor for changes in bleeding. This approach helps in assessing the extent and progression of the bleeding. Option A is incorrect because assessing hemoglobin levels would not provide immediate information on the ongoing bleeding. Option B is premature without first monitoring the bleeding site. Option D is incorrect because although some postoperative bleeding can be expected, fresh bleeding on the cast warrants immediate monitoring and evaluation.

3. The nurse is assessing a client who has been diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which clinical finding is characteristic of this condition?

• A. Pursed-lip breathing
• B. Hyperresonance on percussion
• C. Bradycardia
• D. High-pitched inspiratory crackles

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Pursed-lip breathing is a characteristic finding in clients with COPD. It helps keep the airways open during exhalation, acting as a compensatory mechanism to prevent airway collapse, which is common in COPD. Hyperresonance on percussion is typically found in conditions like emphysema, which is a component of COPD but not characteristic of the overall disease. Bradycardia is not typical in COPD; instead, clients often exhibit tachycardia due to chronic hypoxemia. High-pitched inspiratory crackles are more commonly associated with conditions like pneumonia, not COPD.

4. What action should the nurse implement in caring for a client following an electroencephalogram (EEG)?

• A. Monitor the client's vital signs every 4 hours
• B. Assess the client's lower extremities for sensation
• C. Instruct the client to maintain bed rest
• D. Wash any paste from the client's hair and scalp

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should implement after an EEG is to wash any paste from the client's hair and scalp. This is crucial to prevent irritation and infection at the EEG site. Monitoring vital signs every 4 hours is not specifically indicated after an EEG. Assessing the client's lower extremities for sensation is unrelated to caring for a client post-EEG. While rest may be recommended after the procedure, there is no standard requirement for a specific duration of bed rest.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with Myasthenia Gravis. What time of day is best for the nurse to schedule physical exercises with the physical therapy department?

• A. Before bedtime, at 2000
• B. After breakfast
• C. Before the evening meal
• D. After lunch

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Scheduling physical exercises after breakfast is the optimal choice for a client with Myasthenia Gravis. This timing allows the client to benefit from renewed energy levels after overnight rest and intake of morning nourishment, enhancing the effectiveness of the therapy session. Choices A (Before bedtime, at 2000) is not suitable as energy levels are likely lower at night, affecting the client's ability to engage effectively in physical exercises. Choices C (Before the evening meal) and D (After lunch) may not be ideal as the client may experience fatigue or weakness later in the day, making it harder to participate actively in therapy.

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