Nursing Elites

1. Which client is at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers?

• A. A 50-year-old client with a fractured femur
• B. A 30-year-old client with diabetes mellitus
• C. A 65-year-old client with limited mobility
• D. A 70-year-old client with a history of stroke

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Clients with limited mobility are at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers due to prolonged pressure on specific areas of the body. This constant pressure can lead to tissue damage and ultimately result in pressure ulcers. While age and medical conditions such as diabetes and a history of stroke can contribute to the risk of pressure ulcers, limited mobility is the most significant factor as it directly affects the ability to shift positions and relieve pressure on vulnerable areas of the body. Therefore, the 65-year-old client with limited mobility is at the highest risk compared to the other clients. The 50-year-old client with a fractured femur may have limited mobility due to the injury, but it is temporary and may not be as prolonged as chronic limited mobility. The 30-year-old client with diabetes mellitus and the 70-year-old client with a history of stroke are at risk for developing pressure ulcers, but their conditions do not directly impact their ability to shift positions and alleviate pressure like limited mobility does.

2. What is the primary function of neutrophils?

• A. Heparin secretion
• B. Transport oxygen
• C. Phagocytotic action
• D. Antibody formation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Phagocytotic action. Neutrophils are key components of the immune system, primarily involved in the phagocytosis of bacteria and other pathogens. Choice A, Heparin secretion, is incorrect as heparin is primarily secreted by mast cells and basophils. Choice B, Transport oxygen, is incorrect as this is mainly the function of red blood cells. Choice D, Antibody formation, is incorrect as antibody production is primarily carried out by B lymphocytes.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube after thoracic surgery. What is the most important assessment related to the chest tube?

• A. Ensure continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber
• B. Measure the amount of drainage every shift
• C. Keep the drainage system at the level of the chest
• D. Assess for subcutaneous emphysema around the insertion site

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most important assessment related to a chest tube after thoracic surgery is to assess for subcutaneous emphysema around the insertion site. Subcutaneous emphysema can indicate air leakage from the pleural space, which can lead to serious complications such as a pneumothorax. Ensuring continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber is not the most critical assessment as it is a normal finding in a chest drainage system. While measuring the amount of drainage is important to monitor the client's condition, it is not as crucial as assessing for subcutaneous emphysema. Keeping the drainage system at the level of the chest helps maintain proper function but is not the most critical assessment in this scenario.

4. The nurse is assessing a client with an IV infusion of normal saline. The client reports pain and swelling at the IV site. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Slow the rate of infusion
• B. Apply a warm compress to the site
• C. Elevate the affected arm
• D. Discontinue the IV infusion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to discontinue the IV infusion. Pain and swelling at the IV site may indicate infiltration or phlebitis, which requires immediate discontinuation of the infusion to prevent further complications. Continuing the infusion can lead to tissue damage or infection. Slowing the rate of infusion, applying a warm compress, or elevating the affected arm would not address the underlying issue of infiltration or phlebitis and could potentially worsen the condition by allowing more fluid to infiltrate the tissues.

5. The client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix). What should the nurse include in the teaching plan?

• A. Increase potassium-rich foods in the diet
• B. Avoid foods high in sodium
• C. Monitor fluid intake and adjust as needed
• D. Take the medication in the morning

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to increase potassium-rich foods in the diet. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss as a side effect. By increasing potassium-rich foods, the client can help prevent hypokalemia, a potential complication of furosemide therapy. Choice B is incorrect because while limiting sodium intake is generally advisable for heart failure, it is not directly related to furosemide use. Choice C is incorrect because fluid intake should be monitored and adjusted based on the individual's condition, but setting a specific limit of 1 liter per day is not a standard recommendation. Choice D is incorrect because furosemide is usually taken in the morning to prevent disturbances in sleep due to increased urination during the night.

Similar Questions