Nursing Elites

1. Which client is at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers?

• A. A 50-year-old client with a fractured femur
• B. A 30-year-old client with diabetes mellitus
• C. A 65-year-old client with limited mobility
• D. A 70-year-old client with a history of stroke

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Clients with limited mobility are at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers due to prolonged pressure on specific areas of the body. This constant pressure can lead to tissue damage and ultimately result in pressure ulcers. While age and medical conditions such as diabetes and a history of stroke can contribute to the risk of pressure ulcers, limited mobility is the most significant factor as it directly affects the ability to shift positions and relieve pressure on vulnerable areas of the body. Therefore, the 65-year-old client with limited mobility is at the highest risk compared to the other clients. The 50-year-old client with a fractured femur may have limited mobility due to the injury, but it is temporary and may not be as prolonged as chronic limited mobility. The 30-year-old client with diabetes mellitus and the 70-year-old client with a history of stroke are at risk for developing pressure ulcers, but their conditions do not directly impact their ability to shift positions and alleviate pressure like limited mobility does.

2. A client is prescribed warfarin for the prevention of thromboembolism. What dietary instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Increase intake of green leafy vegetables
• B. Maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K-rich foods
• C. Avoid all foods containing vitamin K
• D. Consume a high-protein diet

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Maintaining a consistent intake of vitamin K-rich foods is important for patients taking warfarin as it helps keep the effects of the medication stable. Choice A is incorrect because while green leafy vegetables are high in vitamin K, they should not be avoided completely but rather consumed consistently. Choice C is also incorrect as avoiding all foods containing vitamin K can lead to fluctuations in warfarin's effectiveness. Choice D is incorrect as a high-protein diet is not specifically recommended for patients taking warfarin.

3. The healthcare provider is providing discharge instructions to a client with chronic heart failure. Which dietary recommendation is most appropriate?

• A. Increase fluid intake.
• B. Follow a low-sodium diet.
• C. Follow a high-protein diet.
• D. Increase sodium intake.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate dietary recommendation for a client with chronic heart failure is to follow a low-sodium diet. This helps manage the condition by reducing fluid retention and the workload on the heart. High fluid intake can lead to fluid overload and exacerbate heart failure symptoms. While protein is important for overall health, a high-protein diet is not specifically indicated for chronic heart failure. Increasing sodium intake is contraindicated in heart failure as it can worsen fluid retention and increase the workload on the heart.

4. Before a client undergoes a Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) scan with contrast, what should the nurse assess?

• A. If the client has any metal implants
• B. If the client has allergies to iodine or shellfish
• C. If the client has a history of claustrophobia
• D. If the client has ever had a similar procedure before

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Before an MRI scan with contrast, the nurse should assess if the client has any metal implants. Metal implants can interfere with the magnetic field of the MRI, which can pose a risk to the client's safety and compromise the quality of the scan. Assessing for allergies to iodine or shellfish (Choice B) is important for contrast agents but not specific to metal implants. Claustrophobia assessment (Choice C) is relevant for MRI scans due to the confined space but not specific to metal implants. Past procedures (Choice D) are important for comparison but not directly related to the risks associated with metal implants during an MRI scan with contrast.

5. Which intervention is most effective in preventing the spread of infection in a healthcare setting?

• A. Wearing gloves
• B. Using hand sanitizer
• C. Practicing hand hygiene
• D. Disinfecting surfaces

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Practicing hand hygiene is the most effective measure to prevent the spread of infection in healthcare settings. While wearing gloves, using hand sanitizer, and disinfecting surfaces are important infection control measures, they are not as effective as proper hand hygiene. Hand hygiene, including handwashing with soap and water or using alcohol-based hand sanitizers, is crucial in preventing the transmission of pathogens from one person to another, making it the best choice among the options provided. Wearing gloves primarily protects the wearer and is not a substitute for hand hygiene. Using hand sanitizer is helpful but may not be as effective as proper handwashing. Disinfecting surfaces is important but does not address the direct transmission of pathogens through hand contact, which hand hygiene effectively prevents.

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