which client is at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers
Logo

Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Adult Health 1 Final Exam

1. Which client is at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Clients with limited mobility are at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers due to prolonged pressure on specific areas of the body. This constant pressure can lead to tissue damage and ultimately result in pressure ulcers. While age and medical conditions such as diabetes and a history of stroke can contribute to the risk of pressure ulcers, limited mobility is the most significant factor as it directly affects the ability to shift positions and relieve pressure on vulnerable areas of the body. Therefore, the 65-year-old client with limited mobility is at the highest risk compared to the other clients. The 50-year-old client with a fractured femur may have limited mobility due to the injury, but it is temporary and may not be as prolonged as chronic limited mobility. The 30-year-old client with diabetes mellitus and the 70-year-old client with a history of stroke are at risk for developing pressure ulcers, but their conditions do not directly impact their ability to shift positions and alleviate pressure like limited mobility does.

2. A client with type 1 diabetes is experiencing symptoms of hypoglycemia. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority intervention for a client with type 1 diabetes experiencing symptoms of hypoglycemia is to give 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate. In a hypoglycemic state, the priority is to quickly raise the blood glucose level. Administering glucagon intramuscularly (Choice A) is reserved for severe hypoglycemia when the client is unable to take oral carbohydrates. Providing a complex carbohydrate snack (Choice B) is beneficial after the initial treatment of hypoglycemia to prevent recurrence. Administering 50% dextrose intravenously (Choice C) is a more invasive intervention typically done in a hospital setting for severe cases.

3. The nurse is with a client when the healthcare provider explains that the biopsy classifies the results as a T1N0M0 tumor. What response should the nurse provide first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer as it accurately explains that the letters T, N, and M in cancer staging represent tumor size, node involvement, and metastasis, respectively. Understanding this staging system helps the client comprehend the extent and severity of the disease. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A has the correct information but is not the most precise response. Choice C is vague and does not directly address the client's need for clarification. Choice D offers further clarification without directly addressing the initial explanation provided by the healthcare provider.

4. A client begins taking an antidepressant drug during the second day of hospitalization. Which assessment is most important for the nurse to include in this client's plan of care while the client is taking the antidepressant?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Monitoring the client's mood is essential when starting an antidepressant to assess for any changes or adverse effects related to the medication. Changes in mood can indicate the effectiveness of the antidepressant or potential side effects. Assessing appetite (Choice A) is important but not as crucial as monitoring mood in this context. Withdrawal symptoms (Choice C) are more relevant when discontinuing antidepressants rather than starting them. Energy level (Choice D) can be influenced by various factors and may not directly reflect the client's response to the antidepressant.

5. The nurse is assessing a client who has been diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which clinical finding is characteristic of this condition?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Pursed-lip breathing is a characteristic finding in clients with COPD. It helps keep the airways open during exhalation, acting as a compensatory mechanism to prevent airway collapse, which is common in COPD. Hyperresonance on percussion is typically found in conditions like emphysema, which is a component of COPD but not characteristic of the overall disease. Bradycardia is not typical in COPD; instead, clients often exhibit tachycardia due to chronic hypoxemia. High-pitched inspiratory crackles are more commonly associated with conditions like pneumonia, not COPD.

Similar Questions

A client with a history of pulmonary embolism is on anticoagulant therapy. What should the nurse monitor regularly?
The nurse is caring for a client with an intravenous infusion of normal saline. The client reports pain and swelling at the IV site. What is the nurse’s priority action?
During a manic episode, what is the most appropriate intervention to implement first for a client with bipolar disorder?
A client with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder is taking lithium. What is the most important information the nurse should provide?
A client with a diagnosis of osteoporosis is prescribed alendronate (Fosamax). What is the most important instruction the nurse should provide?

Access More Features

HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses