which client is at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Adult Health 1 Final Exam

1. Which client is at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Clients with limited mobility are at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers due to prolonged pressure on specific areas of the body. This constant pressure can lead to tissue damage and ultimately result in pressure ulcers. While age and medical conditions such as diabetes and a history of stroke can contribute to the risk of pressure ulcers, limited mobility is the most significant factor as it directly affects the ability to shift positions and relieve pressure on vulnerable areas of the body. Therefore, the 65-year-old client with limited mobility is at the highest risk compared to the other clients. The 50-year-old client with a fractured femur may have limited mobility due to the injury, but it is temporary and may not be as prolonged as chronic limited mobility. The 30-year-old client with diabetes mellitus and the 70-year-old client with a history of stroke are at risk for developing pressure ulcers, but their conditions do not directly impact their ability to shift positions and alleviate pressure like limited mobility does.

2. The nurse plans to administer the rubella vaccine to a postpartum client whose titer is < 1:8 and who is breastfeeding. What information should the nurse provide this client?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Educating about the waiting period helps prevent possible rubella infection in a subsequent early pregnancy.

3. During a health screening, a client's blood pressure reads 160/100 mm Hg. What should the nurse recommend?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A follow-up with a healthcare provider is necessary to assess and manage the newly identified hypertension. While dietary changes and exercise are important for managing high blood pressure, immediate lifestyle modifications without further evaluation by a healthcare provider may not be safe or effective. Option A is the most appropriate initial step to ensure proper assessment and management of the client's blood pressure. Therefore, choices B and C are incorrect in this scenario. Option D is also incorrect because not all options should be implemented without proper medical guidance.

4. A client is being treated for dehydration. Which clinical finding would indicate that treatment is effective?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased urine output. When a client is being treated for dehydration, increased urine output is a positive indication that the treatment is effective. This signifies that the body is beginning to rehydrate and eliminate excess fluid. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because dry mucous membranes, tachycardia, and hypotension are all associated with dehydration and would not be signs of effective treatment.

5. A healthcare provider is reviewing a client's medication list during a routine visit. Which action is most important to ensure medication safety?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A comprehensive review of allergies, medication purposes, and potential interactions is crucial for ensuring medication safety. Asking about allergies helps prevent adverse reactions, reviewing medication purposes ensures the correct use of each drug, and checking for potential drug interactions reduces the risk of harmful effects when medications interact. Choosing 'All of the above' is the correct answer because all three actions are essential steps to enhance medication safety. Options A, B, and C individually play vital roles in promoting medication safety, making option D the most appropriate choice.

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