which client is at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Adult Health 1 Final Exam

1. Which client is at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Clients with limited mobility are at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers due to prolonged pressure on specific areas of the body. This constant pressure can lead to tissue damage and ultimately result in pressure ulcers. While age and medical conditions such as diabetes and a history of stroke can contribute to the risk of pressure ulcers, limited mobility is the most significant factor as it directly affects the ability to shift positions and relieve pressure on vulnerable areas of the body. Therefore, the 65-year-old client with limited mobility is at the highest risk compared to the other clients. The 50-year-old client with a fractured femur may have limited mobility due to the injury, but it is temporary and may not be as prolonged as chronic limited mobility. The 30-year-old client with diabetes mellitus and the 70-year-old client with a history of stroke are at risk for developing pressure ulcers, but their conditions do not directly impact their ability to shift positions and alleviate pressure like limited mobility does.

2. The nurse is assessing a client with congestive heart failure who is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potassium level. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring the potassium level is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Sodium level (choice A) is not typically affected by furosemide. Calcium level (choice C) and chloride level (choice D) are also not the primary focus of monitoring when a client is on furosemide for heart failure.

3. The nurse is caring for a client postoperatively following a thyroidectomy. Which assessment finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Tingling around the mouth should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately as it may indicate hypocalcemia, a potential complication after thyroidectomy. Hoarseness of the voice is common postoperatively due to surgical manipulation, slight swelling at the incision site is a normal response, and a mild fever can be expected after surgery. However, tingling around the mouth suggests a potential calcium imbalance, which requires prompt attention to prevent serious complications.

4. A client with hemorrhoids asks for information about a high fiber diet. Which breakfast menu items should the nurse suggest? (Select all that apply.)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A high-fiber diet is beneficial for managing hemorrhoids as it helps maintain bowel regularity. Raisin bran muffins are a good choice for breakfast as they are high in fiber. Oatmeal is also a high-fiber option that aids digestion and prevents constipation. Raspberries are rich in fiber and contribute to a high-fiber diet. Scrambled eggs, on the other hand, are not high in fiber and do not provide the necessary fiber content needed for managing hemorrhoids.

5. The healthcare provider is providing discharge instructions to a client with chronic heart failure. Which dietary recommendation is most appropriate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate dietary recommendation for a client with chronic heart failure is to follow a low-sodium diet. This helps manage the condition by reducing fluid retention and the workload on the heart. High fluid intake can lead to fluid overload and exacerbate heart failure symptoms. While protein is important for overall health, a high-protein diet is not specifically indicated for chronic heart failure. Increasing sodium intake is contraindicated in heart failure as it can worsen fluid retention and increase the workload on the heart.

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