when should a nurse suction a clients tracheostomy

ATI LPN

PN ATI Comprehensive Predictor

1. When should a healthcare provider suction a client's tracheostomy?

A. When the client is hypotensive
B. When the client is irritable
C. When the client is flushed
D. When the client is bradycardic

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Irritability is an early sign that suctioning is required to clear secretions in a client with a tracheostomy. Hypotension, flushing, and bradycardia are not direct indicators for suctioning a tracheostomy. Hypotension may indicate a need for fluid resuscitation or other interventions, flushing could be due to various reasons like fever, and bradycardia may require evaluation for cardiac causes.

2. The physician orders risperidone (Risperdal) for a client with Alzheimer's disease. The nurse anticipates administering this medication to help decrease which of the following behaviors?

A. Sleep disturbances
B. Concomitant depression
C. Agitation and assaultiveness
D. Confusion and withdrawal

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Agitation and assaultiveness. Risperidone is commonly prescribed for clients with Alzheimer's disease to reduce symptoms of agitation and aggressive behavior. This medication helps in managing challenging behaviors often seen in individuals with Alzheimer's. Choice A, sleep disturbances, is incorrect as risperidone is not primarily indicated for treating sleep issues in Alzheimer's patients. Choice B, concomitant depression, is also incorrect as risperidone is not the first-line treatment for depression in Alzheimer's disease. Choice D, confusion and withdrawal, is incorrect as risperidone does not directly target these symptoms in Alzheimer's patients.

3. What is the correct procedure for taking a telephone order from a provider?

A. State patient name, drug, dose, route, frequency, and read back the order
B. State the medication and ask for a witness to listen to the order
C. Write down the order and verify with the provider within 12 hours
D. Have the provider verify the order during the next in-person visit

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct procedure for taking a telephone order from a provider is to state the patient's name, drug, dose, route, frequency, and then read back the order to ensure accuracy. This process helps in preventing errors and ensures that all relevant information is correctly documented. Choice B is incorrect because having a witness listen to the order is not a standard practice and may not guarantee accuracy. Choice C is incorrect as verifying the order within 12 hours may lead to delays in patient care. Choice D is incorrect because waiting for the provider to verify the order during the next in-person visit could result in a significant delay in administering necessary medication.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a blood transfusion. What is the first step?

A. Administer the blood through an IV push
B. Verify that the client's blood type matches the blood product
C. Ensure the client has eaten before the transfusion
D. Administer a diuretic before starting the transfusion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first step before administering a blood transfusion is to verify that the client's blood type matches the blood product. This step is crucial to prevent transfusion reactions due to incompatibility. Choice A is incorrect because blood should not be administered through an IV push for a blood transfusion. Choice C is incorrect because it is not necessary for the client to eat before a blood transfusion. Choice D is incorrect because administering a diuretic is not a standard practice before starting a blood transfusion.

5. Which of the following findings should the nurse anticipate in the medical record of a client with a pressure ulcer?

A. Serum albumin level of 3 g/dL
B. Braden scale score of 20
C. Norton scale score of 18
D. Hemoglobin level of 13 g/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum albumin level of 3 g/dL. A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL indicates poor nutrition, which is commonly seen in clients with pressure ulcers. Choice B, a Braden scale score of 20, is incorrect because a higher Braden scale score indicates a lower risk of developing pressure ulcers. Choice C, a Norton scale score of 18, is incorrect as it is a tool used to assess the risk of developing pressure ulcers, not a finding in a client with an existing pressure ulcer. Choice D, a hemoglobin level of 13 g/dL, is unrelated to pressure ulcers and does not directly reflect the nutritional status associated with this condition.