what are the risk factors for the development of pressure ulcers and how can they be prevented
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 with NGN

1. What are the risk factors for the development of pressure ulcers, and how can they be prevented?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Immobility and poor nutrition are significant risk factors for pressure ulcers. Immobility leads to prolonged pressure on certain body areas, increasing the risk of tissue damage. Poor nutrition can impair skin integrity and the body's ability to heal. Prevention strategies include frequent turning and repositioning to relieve pressure points. Choice B is incorrect because increased mobility actually reduces the risk of pressure ulcers. Choice C is incorrect as excess moisture can contribute to skin breakdown, but it is not a primary risk factor. Choice D is incorrect as frequent turning and repositioning are part of the prevention measures, not risk factors.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has pneumonia and new onset confusion. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: Increasing the client's oxygen flow rate should be the nurse's first action. Hypoxia is a common complication of pneumonia and can lead to confusion. Providing adequate oxygenation is essential in addressing hypoxia and improving the client's condition.\nOption B: Obtaining vital signs is important but addressing hypoxia takes precedence in the setting of new onset confusion.\nOption C: Administering an antibiotic is important for treating pneumonia but addressing hypoxia and confusion is the priority.\nOption D: Notifying the provider may be necessary but addressing the immediate physiological need of oxygenation should come first.

3. How should a healthcare professional assess a patient with a tracheostomy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Question: To assess a patient with a tracheostomy, the healthcare professional should primarily focus on monitoring for infection and ensuring the airway remains patent. Choice A is the correct answer as these actions are crucial for tracheostomy management. Suctioning airway secretions and providing humidified oxygen (Choice B) are interventions that may be necessary based on the assessment findings but are not the initial assessment steps. Similarly, cleaning the stoma and changing tracheostomy ties (Choice C) are important aspects of tracheostomy care but do not specifically address the initial assessment. Educating the patient on tracheostomy care (Choice D) is important, but it is not the primary assessment action needed when assessing a patient with a tracheostomy.

4. A client is receiving furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potassium. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion through increased urinary excretion. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent hypokalemia, which can lead to cardiac dysrhythmias, muscle weakness, and other serious complications. Monitoring sodium, calcium, and magnesium levels is not typically associated with furosemide therapy, making choices A, C, and D incorrect.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is receiving digoxin. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a sign of digoxin toxicity?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Bradycardia is a common sign of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin, a medication used to treat heart failure, works by slowing down the heart rate and increasing the force of heart contractions. Excessive levels of digoxin can lead to toxicity, causing bradycardia (slow heart rate), among other symptoms. Tachycardia (fast heart rate) and hypotension (low blood pressure) are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Increased appetite is not a recognized sign of digoxin toxicity; instead, gastrointestinal symptoms like nausea, vomiting, and anorexia are more common.

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