Nursing Elites

1. How should a healthcare professional manage a patient with diarrhea?

• A. Provide oral fluids and monitor stool consistency
• B. Administer antidiarrheal medications and monitor hydration
• C. Monitor for electrolyte imbalances and provide antibiotics
• D. Provide a low-fiber diet and monitor weight

Correct answer: A

Rationale: For a patient with diarrhea, the priority is to manage dehydration by providing oral fluids and monitoring stool consistency. Option B suggesting administering antidiarrheal medications is not recommended as it may prolong the infection by preventing the body from expelling the infectious agent. Option C is incorrect because antibiotics are not routinely indicated for diarrhea unless there is a specific bacterial infection. Option D is not the most appropriate initial intervention for managing diarrhea since a low-fiber diet may not provide adequate nutrition for the patient or help resolve the underlying cause of diarrhea.

2. A healthcare professional is caring for a client with coronary artery disease (CAD) who is prescribed aspirin. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

• A. A history of gastrointestinal bleeding
• B. A history of hypertension
• C. A platelet count of 180,000/mm³
• D. A prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: A history of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients with a history of gastrointestinal bleeding are at increased risk of complications when taking aspirin due to its effects on platelet function and the gastrointestinal tract. Reporting this finding to the provider is crucial to ensure patient safety. Choices B, C, and D are not directly related to the increased risk associated with aspirin use in patients with a history of gastrointestinal bleeding, making them less relevant in this scenario. While monitoring platelet count and PT are important in patients taking aspirin, a history of gastrointestinal bleeding takes precedence as it directly impacts the safety and effectiveness of aspirin therapy in this client.

3. How should a healthcare provider manage a patient with hypertensive crisis?

• A. Administer antihypertensive medications and monitor blood pressure
• B. Provide a high-sodium diet and fluid restriction
• C. Administer diuretics and provide oxygen therapy
• D. Provide IV fluids and monitor for kidney failure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a hypertensive crisis, the immediate goal is to lower blood pressure to prevent organ damage. Administering antihypertensive medications helps achieve this goal efficiently. Monitoring blood pressure is essential to assess the effectiveness of the treatment and adjust medication as needed. Providing a high-sodium diet and fluid restriction (Choice B) can exacerbate hypertension by increasing blood pressure. Diuretics and oxygen therapy (Choice C) are not the first-line treatment for hypertensive crisis, as the priority is rapid blood pressure reduction. Providing IV fluids and monitoring for kidney failure (Choice D) are not primary interventions for managing hypertensive crisis; the focus is on blood pressure control and organ protection.

4. A nurse is performing vision testing for a client following a head injury. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a problem with pupil accommodation?

• A. Pupils constrict when shifting gaze from near to far
• B. Pupils constrict when shifting gaze from far to near
• C. Lack of change in pupil size when shifting gaze from near to far
• D. Lack of change in pupil size when shifting gaze from far to near

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pupil accommodation problems are indicated by the lack of change in size when shifting gaze from far to near. The correct answer is D because in pupil accommodation, the pupils should constrict when shifting gaze from far to near in order to adjust for near vision. Choices A and B describe normal responses of pupil constriction when shifting gaze, which do not indicate a problem. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a normal response of pupil size change when shifting gaze from near to far.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has a brainstem injury. The nurse should expect the client to exhibit which of the following findings?

• A. Decerebrate posturing.
• B. Hypervigilance.
• C. Absence of deep tendon reflexes.
• D. Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decerebrate posturing. Decerebrate posturing is an abnormal body posture characterized by rigid extension of the arms and legs, which indicates severe brainstem injury affecting the midbrain and pons. This posture suggests dysfunction or damage to neural pathways controlling muscle tone. Choice B, hypervigilance, is not typically associated with brainstem injury but rather with increased alertness and arousal. Choice C, absence of deep tendon reflexes, is not a specific finding related to brainstem injury. Choice D, a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15, indicates a fully awake and alert state, which is not expected in a client with a brainstem injury.

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