Nursing Elites

1. How should a healthcare professional manage a patient with diarrhea?

• A. Provide oral fluids and monitor stool consistency
• B. Administer antidiarrheal medications and monitor hydration
• C. Monitor for electrolyte imbalances and provide antibiotics
• D. Provide a low-fiber diet and monitor weight

Correct answer: A

Rationale: For a patient with diarrhea, the priority is to manage dehydration by providing oral fluids and monitoring stool consistency. Option B suggesting administering antidiarrheal medications is not recommended as it may prolong the infection by preventing the body from expelling the infectious agent. Option C is incorrect because antibiotics are not routinely indicated for diarrhea unless there is a specific bacterial infection. Option D is not the most appropriate initial intervention for managing diarrhea since a low-fiber diet may not provide adequate nutrition for the patient or help resolve the underlying cause of diarrhea.

2. A client needs a 24-hour urine collection initiated. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the procedure?

• A. I had a bowel movement, but I was able to save the urine.
• B. I have a specimen in the bathroom from about 30 minutes ago.
• C. I flushed what I urinated at 7 am and have saved the rest since.
• D. I drink a lot, so I will fill up the bottle and complete the test quickly.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is correct because it demonstrates the client's understanding of the procedure, which involves discarding the first urine of the day at the specified time and then saving all subsequent urine for the next 24 hours. Choices A, B, and D do not reflect an understanding of the correct procedure. Choice A is incorrect because bowel movements are not part of a 24-hour urine collection. Choice B is incorrect as it does not specify discarding the first urine. Choice D is incorrect as it mentions filling up the bottle quickly, which is not the correct way to collect a 24-hour urine sample.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to discharge a client who is immunocompromised. Which of the following vaccines should the professional plan to administer?

• A. Varicella
• B. Influenza
• C. Hepatitis B
• D. Pneumococcal polysaccharide

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Immunocompromised clients have weakened immune systems, making them more susceptible to infections. The pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine is recommended for these individuals to help prevent pneumococcal infections, which can be severe and life-threatening. Varicella, Influenza, and Hepatitis B vaccines are not specifically indicated for immunocompromised clients. Varicella contains a live virus that can cause infections in immunocompromised individuals. Influenza is generally recommended for all individuals over 6 months of age but does not have the same priority as the pneumococcal vaccine for immunocompromised clients. Hepatitis B vaccine is crucial for preventing Hepatitis B infection but is not directly related to the increased infection risk faced by immunocompromised clients.

4. Which is the correct method for teaching a client to use a cane when they have left-leg weakness?

• A. Use the cane on the weaker side of the body
• B. Advance the cane and the strong leg together
• C. Maintain two points of support on the floor at all times
• D. Advance the cane 30 to 45 cm (12-18 in) with each step

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct method for teaching a client to use a cane when they have left-leg weakness is to maintain two points of support on the floor at all times. This approach ensures stability and helps the client maintain balance while using the cane. Choice A is incorrect because the cane should be used on the stronger side of the body to provide additional support. Choice B is incorrect as advancing the cane and the strong leg together may compromise stability. Choice D is incorrect as advancing the cane too far with each step can lead to imbalance and falls.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving intermittent enteral tube feedings. Which of the following places the client at risk for aspiration?

• A. A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease.
• B. Receiving a formula with high osmolarity.
• C. Sitting in a high-Fowler's position during the feeding.
• D. A residual of 65 mL 1 hour postprandial.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease. Clients with gastroesophageal reflux disease have a higher risk of aspiration during tube feeding due to the potential for reflux of stomach contents into the lungs. This increases the risk of aspiration pneumonia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. High osmolarity formulas may cause diarrhea but do not directly increase the risk of aspiration. Sitting in a high-Fowler's position actually reduces the risk of aspiration by promoting proper digestion and reducing the chance of regurgitation. A residual of 65 mL 1 hour postprandial is within an acceptable range and does not directly indicate a risk for aspiration.

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