Nursing Elites

1. A client has developed phlebitis at the IV site. What is the most appropriate next step?

• A. Apply a warm compress over the IV site
• B. Notify the provider and discontinue the IV infusion
• C. Increase the IV flow rate to clear the blockage
• D. Elevate the extremity and apply an ice pack

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Phlebitis, inflammation of a vein, is a complication that requires prompt action. The most appropriate next step is to discontinue the IV infusion and notify the healthcare provider. Applying a warm compress, increasing the IV flow rate, or applying an ice pack are not appropriate interventions for phlebitis. Warm compresses may worsen inflammation, increasing the IV flow rate could exacerbate the condition, and ice packs are not recommended for phlebitis.

2. A client has developed phlebitis at the IV site. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Apply a warm compress to the IV site
• B. Discontinue the IV and notify the provider
• C. Monitor the IV site for signs of infection
• D. Administer an anti-inflammatory medication

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client develops phlebitis at the IV site, the priority action for the nurse is to discontinue the IV and notify the provider. Phlebitis is inflammation of the vein, and removing the IV can help prevent further complications. Applying a warm compress may provide symptomatic relief but does not address the root cause. Monitoring for infection is important, but immediate action to remove the source of inflammation is crucial. Administering an anti-inflammatory medication is not the first-line intervention for phlebitis; removal of the IV is necessary.

3. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client with dementia who frequently becomes agitated. What should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Investigate the client's fluid and electrolyte balance
• B. Investigate the client's recent medication changes
• C. Investigate recent changes in cognitive functioning
• D. Investigate the client's psychosocial environment

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to investigate the client's recent medication changes. In a client with dementia who frequently becomes agitated, medication changes can often be a significant factor contributing to their behavior. Checking recent medication changes can help identify if any specific medication is causing or exacerbating the agitation. Choice A about fluid and electrolyte balance is less likely to be the priority unless there are specific indications in the medical record. Choice C, investigating recent changes in cognitive functioning, may be important but addressing the agitation first is a more immediate concern. Choice D, investigating the client's psychosocial environment, is also important but may not directly address the immediate cause of the agitation as medication changes could.

4. A nurse is providing discharge instructions for a client using home oxygen. What is the most important safety measure?

• A. Store oxygen tanks in a closet when not in use
• B. Ensure that oxygen tanks are kept upright and away from heat sources
• C. Allow family members to smoke in designated areas
• D. Restrict fluid intake while using oxygen

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ensure that oxygen tanks are kept upright and away from heat sources. This is the most important safety measure to prevent accidents related to home oxygen use. Storing oxygen tanks in a closet when not in use (choice A) is not recommended as they should be stored in a well-ventilated area. Allowing family members to smoke in designated areas (choice C) poses a significant fire hazard. Restricting fluid intake while using oxygen (choice D) is not a safety measure related to oxygen use.

5. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?

• A. The client is experiencing an adverse reaction to rifampin.
• B. The client's seizure disorder is no longer under control.
• C. The client is showing evidence of phenytoin toxicity.
• D. The client is having adverse effects due to combination antimicrobial therapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.

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