Nursing Elites

1. When receiving change-of-shift report for a group of clients, which time-management strategy should the nurse plan to implement?

• A. Prepare a priority list of client needs for the shift
• B. Complete less time-consuming tasks first
• C. Handle urgent client needs at the end of the shift
• D. Work on each client as they are seen

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Preparing a priority list of client needs for the shift is the most effective time-management strategy for a nurse receiving change-of-shift report. This approach helps the nurse identify and address the most urgent client needs first, ensuring efficient use of time. Choice B is incorrect because focusing on less time-consuming tasks first may result in crucial tasks being delayed. Choice C is incorrect as urgent client needs should be handled promptly, not postponed until the end of the shift. Choice D is inefficient as it does not prioritize tasks based on urgency, potentially leading to delays in addressing critical client needs.

2. A nurse is implementing a plan of care for a client who is at risk for falls. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing action?

• A. Implement a regular toileting schedule
• B. Encourage the client to wear athletic socks when ambulating
• C. Place all four bed rails in the upright position
• D. Require a family member to remain at the bedside

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Implementing a regular toileting schedule is an appropriate nursing action for a client at risk for falls. This action can help prevent accidents related to rushing to the bathroom. Encouraging the client to wear athletic socks when ambulating (Choice B) is not safe as it can increase the risk of slipping and falling. Placing all four bed rails in the upright position (Choice C) can lead to entrapment or falls when the client tries to get out of bed. Requiring a family member to remain at the bedside (Choice D) may not always be feasible and does not directly address fall prevention strategies like the toileting schedule.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has severe preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate intravenously. The nurse discontinues the magnesium sulfate after the client displays toxicity. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Position the client supine.
• B. Prepare an IV bolus of dextrose 5% in water.
• C. Administer methylergonovine IM.
• D. Administer calcium gluconate IV.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In cases of magnesium sulfate toxicity, calcium gluconate is the antidote that should be administered promptly. Positioning the client supine (Choice A) is not the priority in this scenario. Administering dextrose 5% in water (Choice B) is not indicated for magnesium sulfate toxicity. Methylergonovine IM (Choice C) is used for postpartum hemorrhage, not for magnesium sulfate toxicity.

4. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?

• A. The client is experiencing an adverse reaction to rifampin.
• B. The client's seizure disorder is no longer under control.
• C. The client is showing evidence of phenytoin toxicity.
• D. The client is having adverse effects due to combination antimicrobial therapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.

5. A healthcare provider is checking a newborn's vital signs. Which of the following methods of temperature measurement should the healthcare provider use?

• A. Rectal
• B. Axillary
• C. Oral
• D. Tympanic

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The axillary method is the most appropriate for newborns because it is non-invasive and safe. Rectal temperature measurement can be uncomfortable and poses a risk of injury, especially in newborns. Oral temperature measurement is not recommended for newborns due to their inability to cooperate and potential inaccuracies. Tympanic temperature measurement may not be as accurate in newborns compared to older children or adults.

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