Nursing Elites

1. When providing hygiene for an older-adult patient, why does the nurse closely assess the skin?

• A. Outer skin layer becomes less resilient.
• B. Less frequent bathing may be required.
• C. Skin becomes more subject to bruising.
• D. Sweat glands become less active.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Less frequent bathing may be required.' In older adults, daily bathing or using hot water and harsh soap can lead to excessively dry skin. Therefore, the nurse closely assesses the skin to determine if less frequent bathing is necessary to prevent skin dryness and maintain skin integrity. Choice A is incorrect because the outer skin layer does not become less resilient with age. Choice C is incorrect as aging skin is actually more prone to bruising due to thinning of the skin. Choice D is incorrect because sweat gland activity generally decreases with age, leading to reduced skin moisture rather than increased activity.

2. A nurse manager is reviewing with nurses on the unit the care of a client who has had a seizure. Which of the following statements by a nurse requires further instruction?

• A. “I will place the client on their side.”
• B. “I will go to the nurses’ station for assistance.”
• C. “I will note the time that the seizure begins.”
• D. “I will prepare to insert an airway.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Going to the nurses’ station for assistance during a seizure is inappropriate as immediate care is necessary. Placing the client on their side helps maintain an open airway and prevents aspiration. Noting the time the seizure begins is crucial for monitoring and documentation. Preparing to insert an airway may be necessary if the client's airway becomes compromised. Therefore, the nurse's statement about going to the nurses' station for assistance is the only incorrect response as it delays essential care.

3. A patient has scaling of the scalp. Which term will the nurse use to report this finding to the oncoming staff?

• A. Dandruff
• B. Alopecia
• C. Pediculosis
• D. Xerostomia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct term the nurse will use to report scaling of the scalp is 'Dandruff.' Dandruff is characterized by scaling of the scalp that is often accompanied by itching. Choice B, 'Alopecia,' refers to hair loss, not scaling. Choice C, 'Pediculosis,' is the infestation of lice, not scaling. Choice D, 'Xerostomia,' pertains to dry mouth, which is unrelated to the described symptom of scaling of the scalp.

4. A client is receiving chemotherapy for breast cancer. Which laboratory value would be most important for the nurse to monitor?

• A. White blood cell count
• B. Hemoglobin level
• C. Serum creatinine
• D. Blood glucose level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the white blood cell count. Chemotherapy can lead to neutropenia, which is a decrease in white blood cells, particularly neutrophils. Neutropenia increases the risk of infections, making it crucial to monitor the white blood cell count during chemotherapy. Monitoring hemoglobin level is important but not as critical as white blood cell count in this scenario. Serum creatinine and blood glucose levels are not directly impacted by chemotherapy for breast cancer, making them less relevant to monitor in this situation.

5. A client with a diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving anticoagulation therapy. Which of the following laboratory values would be most concerning?

• A. INR of 1.5
• B. Platelet count of 200,000/mm³
• C. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL
• D. aPTT of 70 seconds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR of 1.5 is below the therapeutic range for clients on anticoagulation therapy, increasing the risk of clot formation. A lower INR indicates inadequate anticoagulation, which can lead to thrombus formation and potential complications such as progression or recurrence of deep vein thrombosis. Platelet count, hemoglobin level, and aPTT are important parameters to monitor in a client with DVT. However, in this scenario, the most concerning value is the suboptimal INR level because it signifies a lack of anticoagulation effectiveness and poses a higher risk of clotting issues.

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