HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals 2023 Quizlet
1. When providing hygiene for an older-adult patient, why does the nurse closely assess the skin?
- A. Outer skin layer becomes less resilient.
- B. Less frequent bathing may be required.
- C. Skin becomes more subject to bruising.
- D. Sweat glands become less active.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Less frequent bathing may be required.' In older adults, daily bathing or using hot water and harsh soap can lead to excessively dry skin. Therefore, the nurse closely assesses the skin to determine if less frequent bathing is necessary to prevent skin dryness and maintain skin integrity. Choice A is incorrect because the outer skin layer does not become less resilient with age. Choice C is incorrect as aging skin is actually more prone to bruising due to thinning of the skin. Choice D is incorrect because sweat gland activity generally decreases with age, leading to reduced skin moisture rather than increased activity.
2. A male client presents to the clinic stating that he has a high-stress job and is having difficulty falling asleep at night. The client reports having a constant headache and is seeking medication to help with sleep. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Determine the client's sleep and activity patterns
- B. Obtain a prescription for the client to take when stressed
- C. Refer the client for a sleep study and neurological follow-up
- D. Teach coping strategies to use when feeling stressed
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Assessing the client's sleep and activity patterns is crucial in understanding the factors contributing to the sleep difficulties and headaches. By evaluating these patterns, the nurse can identify triggers, stressors, and lifestyle habits that may be impacting the client's sleep quality and overall well-being. This assessment will guide the nurse in formulating an appropriate care plan tailored to the client's specific needs. Option B is not appropriate as it focuses solely on providing medication without addressing underlying issues. Option C is premature as a thorough assessment should precede any referrals for specialized studies. Option D, while important, should come after understanding the client's sleep patterns to provide more targeted coping strategies.
3. The healthcare professional is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to an adult client. Which site is most appropriate for the LPN/LVN to use?
- A. Deltoid muscle
- B. Ventrogluteal site
- C. Dorsogluteal site
- D. Rectus femoris site
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The ventrogluteal site is the most appropriate and safest site for administering an intramuscular injection to an adult client. It is preferred due to its thick muscle mass and fewer major blood vessels and nerves in the area, reducing the risk of injury or complications. The deltoid muscle is commonly used for vaccines and small-volume injections but may not be suitable for larger volumes. The dorsogluteal site has fallen out of favor due to the risk of injury to the sciatic nerve and other underlying structures. The rectus femoris site is not typically used for intramuscular injections in adults.
4. A child is injured on the school playground and appears to have a fractured leg. What action should the school nurse take first?
- A. Call for emergency transport to the hospital
- B. Immobilize the limb and joints above and below the injury
- C. Assess the child and the extent of the injury
- D. Apply cold compresses to the injured area
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct first action for the school nurse to take when a child is injured and appears to have a fractured leg is to assess the child and the extent of the injury. This initial assessment is crucial to determine the severity of the injury before proceeding with further interventions. Option A, calling for emergency transport, should only be done after assessing the extent of the injury. Option B, immobilizing the limb and joints, is important but should come after the initial assessment. Option D, applying cold compresses, is not recommended for suspected fractures as it can exacerbate swelling and pain.
5. A client with a fractured femur has a BP of 140/94 mmHg and denies any history of HTN. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Request a prescription for an antihypertensive medication.
- B. Ask the client if they are having pain.
- C. Request a prescription for an antianxiety medication.
- D. Return in 30 minutes to recheck the client’s BP.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action is to ask the client if they are having pain. Pain can lead to temporary increases in blood pressure. Addressing pain as a potential cause is the initial step before considering medication adjustments. Requesting an antihypertensive medication or an antianxiety medication without assessing pain first would not address the immediate concern. Returning to recheck the BP can be done after addressing the potential pain issue.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access