Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving a blood transfusion. The client reports flank pain, and the nurse notes reddish-brown urine in the client's urinary catheter bag. The nurse recognizes these manifestations as which of the following types of transfusion reactions?

• A. Hemolytic
• B. Allergic
• C. Febrile
• D. Transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hemolytic. Hemolytic reactions can lead to flank pain and hemoglobinuria, as the body breaks down the transfused red blood cells. In hemolytic reactions, the immune system attacks and destroys the transfused red blood cells, causing the release of hemoglobin into the bloodstream and urine. This results in reddish-brown urine, indicating hemoglobinuria. Allergic reactions typically present with symptoms like itching, hives, or rash. Febrile reactions are characterized by fever, chills, and rigors. TRALI is a rare but serious transfusion reaction that manifests as acute respiratory distress following a transfusion, not flank pain and hemoglobinuria.

2. A client with a fractured femur has a BP of 140/94 mmHg and denies any history of HTN. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Request a prescription for an antihypertensive medication.
• B. Ask the client if they are having pain.
• C. Request a prescription for an antianxiety medication.
• D. Return in 30 minutes to recheck the client’s BP.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action is to ask the client if they are having pain. Pain can lead to temporary increases in blood pressure. Addressing pain as a potential cause is the initial step before considering medication adjustments. Requesting an antihypertensive medication or an antianxiety medication without assessing pain first would not address the immediate concern. Returning to recheck the BP can be done after addressing the potential pain issue.

3. A nurse is evaluating teaching about nutrition with the guardians of an 11-year-old child. Which of the following statements should indicate to the nurse an understanding of the teaching?

• A. “Our child wants to eat as much as we do, but we’re afraid it will lead to becoming overweight.”
• B. “Our child skips lunch sometimes, but we figure it’s okay as long as we eat a healthy breakfast and dinner.”
• C. “We limit fast-food restaurant meals to three times a week now.”
• D. “We reward school achievements with a point system instead of pizza or ice cream.”

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Rewarding school achievements with a point system rather than food items like pizza or ice cream is a healthier approach. This choice indicates an understanding of the teaching about nutrition and the importance of not using food as a reward. Choices A, B, and C do not demonstrate a clear understanding of the teaching as they focus on concerns about overeating, skipping meals, and limiting fast-food consumption but do not address the concept of avoiding food rewards for achievements.

4. During passive range of motion (ROM) and splinting, the absence of which finding will indicate goal achievement for these interventions?

• A. Atelectasis
• B. Renal calculi
• C. Pressure ulcers
• D. Joint contractures

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Joint contractures. When a healthcare provider performs passive ROM and splinting on a patient, the goal is to prevent joint contractures. Joint contractures result from immobility and can lead to permanent stiffness and decreased range of motion. Atelectasis (choice A) is a condition where there is a complete or partial collapse of the lung, commonly due to immobility, but not directly related to passive ROM or splinting. Renal calculi (choice B) are kidney stones and are not typically associated with ROM exercises. Pressure ulcers (choice C) result from prolonged pressure on the skin and are prevented by repositioning the patient, not specifically addressed by ROM and splinting exercises.

5. The nurse assesses a client who has a nasal cannula delivering oxygen at 2 L/min. To assess for skin damage related to the cannula, which areas should the nurse observe?

• A. Tops of the ears
• B. Bridge of the nose
• C. Around the nostrils
• D. Over the cheeks

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is using a nasal cannula for oxygen therapy, the areas prone to skin damage are the tops of the ears and around the nostrils. The pressure exerted by the cannula on these areas can lead to skin breakdown, so it is important for the nurse to observe these sites for any signs of damage. The correct answer is 'Tops of the ears.' Choices 'Bridge of the nose' and 'Over the cheeks' are not typically areas where skin damage related to the cannula would occur, making them incorrect choices.

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