Nursing Elites

1. When preparing to administer a medication through a nasogastric (NG) tube, what is the first action the nurse should take?

• A. Check the placement of the NG tube
• B. Flush the tube with saline
• C. Position the client in a semi-Fowler's position
• D. Administer the medication slowly

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct first action when preparing to administer a medication through a nasogastric (NG) tube is to check the placement of the NG tube. This step is essential to ensure that the tube is correctly positioned in the stomach and not in the lungs, preventing potential complications. Flushing the tube with saline may be required, but it should follow the verification of tube placement. Positioning the client in a semi-Fowler's position is necessary for comfort during the procedure but is not the initial step. Administering the medication can only be done safely after confirming the correct placement of the NG tube.

2. Which of the following is a priority for the nurse to include in the teaching of a client who was recently prescribed alprazolam (Xanax) as an oral medication?

• A. Monitor heart rate before taking the medication
• B. Monitor temperature daily
• C. Avoid unprotected exposure to sunlight
• D. Avoid alcohol

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Avoid alcohol.' Alprazolam (Xanax) can have central nervous system depressant effects, which are exacerbated by alcohol. It is crucial to avoid alcohol while taking this medication to prevent severe sedation and respiratory depression. Monitoring heart rate (choice A) is not directly related to alprazolam administration. Monitoring temperature daily (choice B) is not a priority teaching point for a client prescribed alprazolam. Avoiding unprotected exposure to sunlight (choice C) is not specifically linked to the use of alprazolam.

3. The nurse is providing care for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who is receiving NPH insulin. The nurse notices that the client's evening glucose levels are consistently above 260 mg/dl. What does this indicate?

• A. States that her feet are constantly cold and feel numb
• B. A wound on the ankle that starts to drain and becomes painful
• C. Consecutive evening serum glucose greater than 260 mg/dl
• D. Reports nausea in the morning but still able to eat breakfast

Correct answer: C

Rationale: High evening glucose levels suggest that the current insulin dosage may be inadequate to control the client's blood sugar levels effectively. This indicates poor glycemic control and the need for a possible adjustment in the insulin regimen. Option A describes symptoms of peripheral neuropathy, which are not directly related to the elevated glucose levels but may be a long-term complication of diabetes. Option B describes a wound infection, which is not directly related to the client's high glucose levels. Option D mentions morning nausea, which could be due to various causes and is not directly related to the high evening glucose levels.

4. Inspiratory and expiratory stridor may be heard in a client who:

• A. Is experiencing an exacerbation of goiter
• B. Is experiencing an acute asthmatic attack
• C. Has aspirated a piece of meat
• D. Has severe laryngotracheitis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Inspiratory and expiratory stridor are high-pitched, wheezing sounds caused by disrupted airflow due to airway obstruction. Severe laryngotracheitis, involving inflammation and swelling of the larynx and trachea, leads to airway obstruction and can produce both inspiratory and expiratory stridor. Exacerbation of goiter, an acute asthmatic attack, and aspiration of a piece of meat are not typically associated with both inspiratory and expiratory stridor. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect.

5. In a group therapy setting, one member is very demanding, repeatedly interrupting others and taking most of the group time. The nurse's best response would be:

• A. Will you briefly summarize your point because others need time as well?
• B. Your behavior is obnoxious and drains the group.
• C. I am so frustrated with your behavior.
• D. To ignore the behavior and allow him to vent

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a group therapy setting, where each member should have the opportunity to participate, it is essential for the nurse to manage disruptive behavior assertively yet respectfully. Choice A is the best response as it addresses the issue of one member dominating the group time by asking them to summarize their point briefly, allowing others to contribute. Choice B is confrontational and may alienate the individual, hindering the therapeutic process. Choice C expresses personal frustration, which is not constructive in managing the situation. Choice D of ignoring the behavior is not effective as it allows the disruptive behavior to continue, impacting the group dynamics negatively.

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