HESI LPN
HESI Fundamental Practice Exam
1. When communicating with a client who is hearing impaired, what should the nurse do?
- A. Face the client and speak slowly
- B. Speak loudly and clearly
- C. Use written communication only
- D. Avoid using gestures or body language
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When communicating with a client who is hearing impaired, it is important to face the client and speak slowly. This helps the individual lip-read and understand the communication more easily. Speaking loudly can distort speech and make it harder for the person to understand. Written communication may not always be practical or accessible for the client, especially in real-time interactions. Gestures and body language can actually aid in communication by providing visual cues and context. Therefore, the best approach is to face the client, speak clearly at a moderate pace, and use gestures and body language to enhance understanding.
2. When planning care for a newly admitted elderly client who is severely dehydrated, which task is appropriate to assign to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?
- A. Converse with the client to determine if the mucous membranes are impaired
- B. Report hourly outputs of less than 30 ml/hr
- C. Monitor client's ability to move in the bed
- D. Check skin turgor every 4 hours
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Assigning the UAP to report hourly outputs of less than 30 ml/hr is appropriate as it falls within their scope of practice and does not involve making clinical assessments or decisions. Choices A, C, and D involve tasks that require a higher level of clinical judgment and training. Choice A requires assessing mucous membranes, which is beyond the UAP's scope. Choice C involves assessing movement ability, which requires more specialized training. Choice D involves assessing skin turgor, which also requires a higher level of clinical judgment.
3. Seconal 0.1 gram PRN at bedtime is prescribed to a client for rest. The scored tablets are labeled 1.5 grains per tablet. How many tablets should the LPN/LVN plan to administer?
- A. 0.5 tablet
- B. 1 tablet
- C. 1.5 tablets
- D. 2 tablets
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To calculate the number of tablets needed, convert the prescribed dose of Seconal from grams to grains. Since 1 gram is equal to approximately 15.43 grains, 0.1 gram is roughly 1.543 grains. Given that each tablet contains 1.5 grains, administering 1 tablet (which is slightly more than the 1.543 grains needed) provides the correct dose of Seconal. Therefore, the LPN/LVN should plan to administer 1 tablet. Choice A (0.5 tablet) is incorrect as it would provide less than the required dose. Choice C (1.5 tablets) and Choice D (2 tablets) are incorrect as they would exceed the necessary dosage.
4. A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen). Which laboratory value should the LPN/LVN monitor to determine the effectiveness of this medication?
- A. Serum potassium
- B. Hemoglobin
- C. Serum creatinine
- D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hemoglobin. Monitoring hemoglobin levels is essential to assess the effectiveness of epoetin alfa in clients with chronic kidney disease. Epoetin alfa is a medication that stimulates red blood cell production, aiming to increase hemoglobin levels and improve symptoms of anemia in these patients. Monitoring serum potassium (Choice A) is important in clients with kidney disease, but it is more related to assessing electrolyte balance rather than the direct effectiveness of epoetin alfa. Serum creatinine (Choice C) and blood urea nitrogen (Choice D) are kidney function tests that help evaluate kidney health but do not specifically reflect the effectiveness of epoetin alfa therapy.
5. To ensure client safety, a nurse manager is planning to observe a newly licensed nurse perform a straight catheterization on a client. In which of the following roles is a nurse manager functioning?
- A. Case manager - responsible for overseeing a case load of clients but does not provide direct client care
- B. Client educator
- C. Client advocate
- D. Supervisor
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Supervisor. In this scenario, the nurse manager is acting as a supervisor to oversee and ensure the newly licensed nurse performs the straight catheterization correctly, following protocols, and maintaining client safety. A supervisor role involves monitoring and guiding staff in their duties to ensure quality care. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. A case manager typically manages a case load of clients but does not provide direct care like in this situation. Client educator and client advocate roles do not directly relate to supervising or overseeing a procedure being performed by another nurse.
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