Nursing Elites

1. What type of inheritance pattern results in a 3:1 ratio of dominant to recessive phenotypes in the F2 generation?

• A. Incomplete dominance
• B. Codominance
• C. Sex-linked inheritance
• D. Autosomal dominant inheritance

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Autosomal dominant inheritance results in a 3:1 ratio of dominant to recessive phenotypes in the F2 generation. This inheritance pattern occurs when a single copy of the dominant allele is enough to express the dominant phenotype. A) Incomplete dominance: In incomplete dominance, the heterozygous phenotype is a blend of the two homozygous phenotypes, and it does not lead to a 3:1 ratio of dominant to recessive phenotypes in the F2 generation. B) Codominance: In codominance, both alleles are fully expressed in the heterozygous phenotype, but this pattern also does not result in a 3:1 ratio of dominant to recessive phenotypes in the F2 generation. C) Sex-linked inheritance: Sex-linked inheritance involves genes located on the sex chromosomes and does not typically lead to a 3:1 ratio of dominant to recessive phenotypes in the F2 generation.

2. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be found in a human cell's genes?

• A. Sequences of amino acids to be transcribed into mRNA
• B. Lethal recessive traits like sickle cell anemia
• C. Mutated DNA
• D. DNA that codes for proteins the cell doesn't use

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Human cells typically contain genes that code for proteins necessary for the cell's functions. DNA that codes for proteins the cell doesn't use would be an inefficient use of the cell's resources. Therefore, it is less likely to be found in a human cell's genes. Options A, B, and C are more commonly associated with genes found in human cells. Choice A refers to the genetic information needed for protein synthesis, while choice B involves traits that can be present in the gene pool. Mutated DNA (choice C) can also be found in human cells as a result of genetic alterations. However, DNA that codes for proteins not utilized by the cell would be redundant and not typically retained in the genome.

3. What are the finger-like projections that increase the surface area for absorption in the small intestine called?

• A. Crypts of Lieberkühn
• B. Goblet cells
• C. Villi
• D. Paneth cells

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A) Crypts of Lieberkühn are small pits in the lining of the small intestine that contain cells involved in the production of intestinal juices, but they do not increase the surface area for absorption. B) Goblet cells are specialized cells that secrete mucus to protect the lining of the digestive tract, but they do not increase the surface area for absorption. C) Villi are finger-like projections in the small intestine that increase the surface area available for nutrient absorption. Each villus contains blood vessels and lacteals (lymphatic vessels) that help absorb nutrients from digested food. D) Paneth cells are specialized cells found in the small intestine that secrete antimicrobial substances, but they do not increase the surface area for absorption.

4. What checkpoint mechanism ensures all chromosomes are attached to the spindle fibers before anaphase begins?

• A. Prometaphase
• B. Metaphase
• C. Cyclin degradation
• D. Sister chromatid cohesion

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A) Prometaphase is the correct answer because it is the stage of mitosis where all chromosomes are attached to the spindle fibers before anaphase begins. During prometaphase, the nuclear envelope breaks down, allowing the spindle fibers to attach to the kinetochores of the chromosomes. This attachment is necessary for proper chromosome alignment and segregation during anaphase. B) Metaphase is incorrect because it is the stage where chromosomes are aligned at the metaphase plate but do not necessarily have all spindle fibers attached. C) Cyclin degradation is incorrect because it is a regulatory mechanism that controls the progression of the cell cycle but is not specifically related to ensuring all chromosomes are attached to spindle fibers. D) Sister chromatid cohesion is incorrect because it refers to the physical connection between sister chromatids that is maintained until anaphase, but it does not ensure that all chromosomes are attached to spindle fibers.

5. During normal breathing, which muscle is the primary driver of inhalation by contracting and flattening to increase the volume of the thoracic cavity?

• A. Diaphragm
• B. Intercostal muscles
• C. Abdominal muscles
• D. Pectoral muscles

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The diaphragm is the primary muscle responsible for inhalation during normal breathing. When it contracts, it flattens, increasing the volume of the thoracic cavity and creating a negative pressure that allows air to flow into the lungs. Intercostal muscles also play a role in expanding the chest cavity during inhalation, but the diaphragm is the main driver of the process. Abdominal muscles are primarily involved in exhalation by pushing the diaphragm upward to expel air from the lungs. Pectoral muscles are involved in movements of the arms and shoulders, not in breathing, making them incorrect choices for this question.

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