Nursing Elites

1. How do killer T cells recognize infected cells?

• A. The B cells flag the infected cells with amino acids.
• B. Tiny bits of the virus's RNA are left around the cell.
• C. Macrophages show up to help consume the infected cell.
• D. The T cells have receptors that recognize the proteins the virus leaves on the surface of the cell.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Killer T cells recognize infected cells by detecting viral proteins displayed on the surface of these cells. The T cells possess receptors specifically designed to identify these viral proteins, allowing them to target and eliminate the infected cells. Choice A is incorrect because B cells are not directly involved in the recognition process of infected cells by killer T cells. Choice B is incorrect because tiny bits of the virus's RNA being left around the cell is not how killer T cells primarily recognize infected cells. Choice C is incorrect because while macrophages play a role in immune responses, they do not directly assist in the recognition of infected cells by killer T cells.

2. Which property of a wave is responsible for determining its energy?

• A. Amplitude
• B. Wavelength
• C. Frequency
• D. Velocity

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Frequency. The energy of a wave is determined by its frequency, not its amplitude, wavelength, or velocity. According to the equation E = h*f, where E is energy, h is Planck's constant, and f is frequency, the energy of a wave is directly proportional to its frequency. Higher frequency waves carry more energy, while lower frequency waves carry less energy. Therefore, frequency plays a crucial role in determining the energy content of a wave, making it the correct choice in this context.

3. What causes stretch marks?

• A. The epidermis layer becomes inflamed
• B. The dermis layer becomes inflamed
• C. The dermis layer tears due to rapid stretching
• D. Sebaceous glands become clogged

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Stretch marks occur when the dermis layer tears due to rapid stretching of the skin. This tearing leads to the appearance of stretch marks, which are often red or purple at first and then fade to a silvery-white color over time. Inflammation of the dermis or clogging of sebaceous glands are not directly related to the formation of stretch marks. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not describe the actual cause of stretch marks.

4. Which component of the nervous system is responsible for controlling voluntary movements, such as the contraction of skeletal muscles?

• A. Autonomic nervous system
• B. Peripheral nervous system
• C. Somatic nervous system
• D. Sympathetic nervous system

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Somatic nervous system. The somatic nervous system is responsible for controlling voluntary movements, such as the contraction of skeletal muscles. This system consists of motor neurons that send signals from the central nervous system to the skeletal muscles, allowing for conscious control over movement. The autonomic nervous system (A) controls involuntary functions like heart rate and digestion, the peripheral nervous system (B) includes all nerves outside the central nervous system, and the sympathetic nervous system (D) is a division of the autonomic nervous system responsible for the fight-or-flight response. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not specifically regulate voluntary movements of skeletal muscles, which is a function of the somatic nervous system.

5. The neutral theory of molecular evolution proposes that:

• A. Most mutations in DNA are selectively neutral and do not affect an organism's fitness.
• B. All mutations are beneficial and contribute to the adaptation of a population.
• C. The rate of evolution is primarily driven by strong directional selection pressures.
• D. Genetic drift plays a negligible role in shaping genetic variation within populations.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: A) The neutral theory of molecular evolution, proposed by Motoo Kimura in the 1960s, suggests that the majority of mutations that occur in DNA are selectively neutral, meaning they do not have a significant impact on an organism's fitness. These neutral mutations are not subject to natural selection and are allowed to accumulate in populations over time. This theory helps explain the high levels of genetic variation observed within populations. B) Option B is incorrect because not all mutations are beneficial. Mutations can be neutral, harmful, or beneficial, and the neutral theory specifically focuses on the idea that many mutations are neutral in their effects. C) Option C is incorrect because the neutral theory suggests that evolution is not primarily driven by strong directional selection pressures. Instead, it emphasizes the role of genetic drift and the accumulation of neutral mutations in shaping genetic variation. D) Option D is incorrect because

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