Nursing Elites

1. What title should be given to this role in occupational health? An advanced practice nurse who provides workers with primary care services with an emphasis on the diagnosis and management of common acute illnesses/injuries and stable chronic diseases.

• A. case manager
• B. nurse consultant
• C. clinician nurse practitioner
• D. health promotion specialist

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct title for this role is a clinician nurse practitioner as they provide primary care services, including diagnosing and managing illnesses. Choice A, case manager, typically focuses on coordinating care and services for patients. Choice B, nurse consultant, involves providing expert advice and guidance. Choice D, health promotion specialist, concentrates on promoting health and preventing diseases rather than diagnosing and treating illnesses.

2. The community health nurse is planning a series of educational courses about the healthcare system and meeting healthcare needs for the community center. Which adjunct issue should the nurse address for a group of older adults?

• A. Peer concerns.
• B. Adult daycare.
• C. Retirement issues.
• D. Vocational concerns.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When planning educational courses for older adults, addressing adult daycare is crucial as it is a relevant issue that can impact their daily lives and access to healthcare services. Peer concerns may not be directly related to healthcare needs, retirement issues are important but not as immediate in terms of healthcare access, and vocational concerns are more pertinent to working-age individuals.

3. The hospital is planning to downsize and eliminate a number of staff positions as a cost-saving measure. To assist staff in this change process, the nurse manager is preparing for the "unfreezing" phase of change. With this approach and phase the nurse manager should

• A. Discuss with the staff how to deal with any defensive behavior
• B. Explain to the unit staff why change is necessary
• C. Assist the staff during the acceptance of the new changes
• D. Clarify what the changes mean to the community and hospital

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The "unfreezing" phase involves preparing staff for change by explaining the necessity and benefits of the change, helping them to understand and accept it.

4. A client with a urinary tract infection is receiving ciprofloxacin (Cipro). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Tendonitis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ciprofloxacin can cause tendonitis and an increased risk of tendon rupture. Monitoring for tendonitis is crucial as it can lead to significant musculoskeletal issues. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as hypertension, hypoglycemia, and hyperkalemia are not typically associated with ciprofloxacin use.

5. A client with HIV/AIDS is receiving zidovudine (Retrovir). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Hyperglycemia
• B. Anemia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Anemia. Zidovudine (Retrovir) can cause bone marrow suppression, leading to anemia. Monitoring for signs of anemia, such as fatigue, pallor, and shortness of breath, is crucial. Choice A, Hyperglycemia, is not a common adverse effect of zidovudine. Choice C, Hypertension, is not directly associated with zidovudine use. Choice D, Hypercalcemia, is also not a typical adverse effect of zidovudine.

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