what should a nurse prioritize when managing a client with delirium
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quizlet

1. What should a healthcare professional prioritize when managing a client with delirium?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When managing a client with delirium, the priority should be to identify the underlying cause of the delirium. Delirium can result from various triggers such as infections, medication side effects, or metabolic imbalances. By determining the root cause, healthcare professionals can provide targeted treatment and improve outcomes. Administering sedative medication (Choice A) could exacerbate delirium as these drugs can worsen confusion. While providing a low-stimulation environment (Choice B) is beneficial, it is not as critical as identifying the cause. Controlling behavioral symptoms with medication (Choice D) should only be considered after identifying and addressing the underlying cause of delirium.

2. A client is postoperative following hip replacement surgery. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in preventing dislocation of the prosthesis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To prevent dislocation of the prosthesis after hip replacement surgery, it is essential to avoid bending the hip more than 90 degrees. This precaution helps maintain the stability of the hip joint and reduces the risk of prosthesis dislocation. Crossing legs at the knees (Choice A) can increase pressure on the hip joint, leading to instability. Sitting with legs elevated (Choice C) and avoiding placing a pillow under the knees (Choice D) do not directly address the risk of prosthesis dislocation.

3. A nurse is caring for an infant who is receiving IV fluids for dehydration. Which of the following should the nurse recognize as a positive response to the therapy?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Increased urine output is a positive sign that the IV fluids are effectively treating dehydration. Tachycardia (choice A) and hypotension (choice B) are signs of dehydration and would not be considered positive responses to therapy. Diarrhea (choice D) can worsen dehydration and is not a positive response to IV fluid therapy.

4. A client with a peptic ulcer had a partial gastrectomy and vagotomy (Billroth I). In planning the discharge teaching, the client should be cautioned by the nurse about which of the following?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Avoid eating large meals that are high in simple sugars and liquids.' Clients who have undergone partial gastrectomy are at risk of dumping syndrome, which can occur due to the rapid emptying of stomach contents into the small intestine. Consuming large meals high in simple sugars and liquids can exacerbate this syndrome, leading to symptoms like abdominal cramping and diarrhea. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to preventing dumping syndrome and are not the priority concerns for a client post-partial gastrectomy.

5. What is the first intervention for a patient in shock?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer fluids. In a patient experiencing shock, the priority is to address inadequate perfusion by restoring circulating blood volume. Administering fluids helps improve perfusion and oxygen delivery to vital organs. Monitoring blood pressure, providing oxygen, and calling for assistance are important steps but administering fluids is the initial and most critical intervention in the management of shock.

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