Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?

• A. The client is experiencing an adverse reaction to rifampin.
• B. The client's seizure disorder is no longer under control.
• C. The client is showing evidence of phenytoin toxicity.
• D. The client is having adverse effects due to combination antimicrobial therapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.

2. A nurse is contributing to the plan of care for a client following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

• A. Administer antibiotics
• B. Irrigate the bladder using sterile technique
• C. Avoid irrigating the bladder
• D. Insert a urinary catheter

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Irrigating the bladder using sterile technique is crucial in the care of a client following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). This intervention helps prevent infection and maintains patency of the urinary catheter, promoting healing. Administering antibiotics (Choice A) may be necessary if there is an infection present, but it is not a routine intervention following TURP. Avoiding bladder irrigation (Choice C) is not recommended as it can lead to clot retention and other complications. Inserting a urinary catheter (Choice D) is usually already done during the TURP procedure and is not a postoperative intervention.

3. A nurse is receiving change-of-shift report for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?

• A. A client with pneumonia who had new onset of confusion
• B. A client with diabetes who had low blood sugar overnight
• C. A client with a leg fracture who needs pain medication
• D. A client whose urinary output was 100 mL for the past 12 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. New confusion in a client with pneumonia could indicate hypoxia or a worsening condition, requiring immediate attention. Option B, a client with diabetes having low blood sugar overnight, is a concerning condition but not as urgent as potential hypoxia. Option C, a client with a leg fracture needing pain medication, and option D, a client with decreased urinary output, are important but do not take precedence over addressing a potentially critical respiratory issue.

4. What is the best dietary recommendation for a patient with chronic kidney disease?

• A. Low-protein diet
• B. High-protein diet
• C. Low-sodium diet
• D. High-sodium diet

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is a low-protein diet for a patient with chronic kidney disease. In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys may have difficulty filtering waste products from protein metabolism, leading to a buildup of toxins in the body. Therefore, reducing protein intake can help lessen the workload on the kidneys. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. A high-protein diet would increase the workload on the kidneys, while a low-sodium diet is beneficial for conditions like hypertension or heart failure but not specifically targeted for chronic kidney disease. A high-sodium diet can worsen fluid retention and hypertension in patients with kidney disease.

5. A nurse is preparing to perform a sterile dressing change. Which of the following actions should the nurse take when setting up the sterile field?

• A. Place the cap from the solution sterile side up on a clean surface.
• B. Open the outermost flap of the sterile kit away from the body.
• C. Place the sterile dressing within 1.25 cm (0.5 in) of the edge of the sterile field.
• D. Set up the sterile field 5 cm (2 in) above waist level.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To maintain the sterility of the field, the nurse should place the cap from the solution sterile side up on a clean surface. This action helps prevent contamination. Choice B is incorrect because opening the outermost flap toward the body increases the risk of introducing contaminants onto the sterile field. Choice C is incorrect as the sterile dressing should be placed at least 2.5 cm (1 in) from the edge of the sterile field to prevent accidental contamination. Choice D is incorrect because setting up the sterile field above waist level could lead to inadvertent contact and compromise the field's sterility.

Similar Questions