Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?

• A. The client is experiencing an adverse reaction to rifampin.
• B. The client's seizure disorder is no longer under control.
• C. The client is showing evidence of phenytoin toxicity.
• D. The client is having adverse effects due to combination antimicrobial therapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.

2. What is the main symptom of left-sided heart failure?

• A. Shortness of breath
• B. Edema
• C. Increased heart rate
• D. Decreased urine output

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Shortness of breath is the main symptom of left-sided heart failure because it results from pulmonary congestion due to fluid buildup in the lungs. Edema, increased heart rate, and decreased urine output are associated with right-sided heart failure rather than left-sided heart failure.

3. What term refers to the agreement to keep promises?

• A. Fidelity
• B. Non-maleficence
• C. Autonomy
• D. Justice

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The term 'fidelity' specifically refers to the agreement to keep promises. Fidelity in healthcare ethics emphasizes the importance of healthcare professionals keeping their commitments to patients. Choice B, 'Non-maleficence,' relates to the ethical principle of doing no harm. Choice C, 'Autonomy,' refers to respecting a patient's right to make decisions about their own healthcare. Choice D, 'Justice,' pertains to fairness and equality in the distribution of healthcare resources.

4. What are the key considerations for managing a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?

• A. Airway Management
• B. Oxygen Therapy
• C. Smoking Cessation
• D. Pulmonary Rehabilitation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The key considerations for managing a patient with COPD include airway management, ensuring adequate oxygenation, promoting smoking cessation, and incorporating pulmonary rehabilitation. While airway management is crucial for maintaining patency and preventing exacerbations, oxygen therapy helps improve oxygen levels in the blood. Smoking cessation is essential to slow down disease progression and reduce exacerbation risk. Pulmonary rehabilitation plays a vital role in enhancing exercise tolerance and overall quality of life for COPD patients. Therefore, while all options are important in managing COPD, airway management is the most critical aspect.

5. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has diabetes mellitus and is receiving insulin. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Hemoglobin A1c of 6%
• B. Fasting blood glucose of 90 mg/dL
• C. Blood glucose of 200 mg/dL
• D. Blood glucose of 100 mg/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A blood glucose level of 200 mg/dL indicates hyperglycemia and should be reported for potential insulin adjustment.

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