Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?

• A. The client is experiencing an adverse reaction to rifampin.
• B. The client's seizure disorder is no longer under control.
• C. The client is showing evidence of phenytoin toxicity.
• D. The client is having adverse effects due to combination antimicrobial therapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.

2. How should a healthcare provider assess and manage a patient with hyperthyroidism?

• A. Administer beta-blockers and monitor for signs of thyroid storm
• B. Encourage a high-protein, low-iodine diet
• C. Monitor for signs of bradycardia
• D. Provide iodine supplements and check for arrhythmias

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering beta-blockers is the initial management for hyperthyroidism to control symptoms such as tachycardia and tremors. Monitoring for signs of thyroid storm is crucial as it is a life-threatening complication of hyperthyroidism. Encouraging a high-protein, low-iodine diet (choice B) is not the primary intervention for managing hyperthyroidism. Monitoring for signs of bradycardia (choice C) is not typically seen in hyperthyroidism, as it often presents with tachycardia. Providing iodine supplements and checking for arrhythmias (choice D) are contraindicated in hyperthyroidism as they can worsen the condition.

3. A healthcare provider is providing discharge teaching to a client who is recovering from acute pancreatitis. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare provider include?

• A. Consume a low-fat diet.
• B. Limit your carbohydrate intake.
• C. Increase your protein intake.
• D. Take acetaminophen for pain management.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clients recovering from acute pancreatitis should consume a low-fat diet to reduce the workload on the pancreas and prevent exacerbation. This diet helps in minimizing the stimulation of pancreatic enzyme secretion, which aids in the recovery process. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as limiting carbohydrate intake or increasing protein intake may not be necessary for acute pancreatitis, and acetaminophen may not be the first-line choice for pain management in this condition.

4. How should a healthcare provider manage a patient with hypertensive crisis?

• A. Administer antihypertensive medications and monitor blood pressure
• B. Provide a high-sodium diet and fluid restriction
• C. Administer diuretics and provide oxygen therapy
• D. Provide IV fluids and monitor for kidney failure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a hypertensive crisis, the immediate goal is to lower blood pressure to prevent organ damage. Administering antihypertensive medications helps achieve this goal efficiently. Monitoring blood pressure is essential to assess the effectiveness of the treatment and adjust medication as needed. Providing a high-sodium diet and fluid restriction (Choice B) can exacerbate hypertension by increasing blood pressure. Diuretics and oxygen therapy (Choice C) are not the first-line treatment for hypertensive crisis, as the priority is rapid blood pressure reduction. Providing IV fluids and monitoring for kidney failure (Choice D) are not primary interventions for managing hypertensive crisis; the focus is on blood pressure control and organ protection.

5. Which of the following findings indicates a need for immediate attention in a client diagnosed with delirium?

• A. Confusion and disorientation that resolve with rest
• B. A blood pressure reading of 110/70
• C. Irritability and agitation that worsen throughout the day
• D. Mild confusion during the evening hours

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Irritability and agitation that worsen throughout the day. These symptoms are concerning in a client diagnosed with delirium as they may indicate an exacerbation of the condition or an underlying cause that requires immediate attention. Option A describes symptoms that resolve with rest, which may not be as urgent. Option B provides a normal blood pressure reading, which is not typically associated with immediate attention in delirium cases. Option D describes mild confusion during specific hours, which may not be as critical as worsening symptoms throughout the day.

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