ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 with NGN
1. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?
- A. The client is experiencing an adverse reaction to rifampin.
- B. The client's seizure disorder is no longer under control.
- C. The client is showing evidence of phenytoin toxicity.
- D. The client is having adverse effects due to combination antimicrobial therapy.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.
2. While caring for a client with an IV infusion who develops redness and warmth at the IV site, what is the most appropriate intervention?
- A. Elevate the IV site and apply an ice pack
- B. Administer an anti-inflammatory medication
- C. Apply a cold compress to the IV site
- D. Discontinue the IV and notify the provider
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct intervention when a client develops redness and warmth at the IV site, indicating phlebitis, is to discontinue the IV and notify the provider. This is crucial to prevent further complications. Elevating the IV site and applying an ice pack (Choice A) may not address the underlying issue of phlebitis. Administering an anti-inflammatory medication (Choice B) is not the primary intervention for phlebitis. Applying a cold compress (Choice C) may provide temporary relief but does not address the need to discontinue the IV when phlebitis occurs.
3. A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client with home oxygen therapy. Which of the following is essential for safety?
- A. Allow the client to smoke in designated outdoor areas
- B. Place the oxygen equipment 10 feet away from any open flames
- C. Keep oxygen tanks upright at all times
- D. Restrict fluid intake while using oxygen
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to keep oxygen tanks upright at all times. This is essential for safety as it prevents the tanks from falling and causing injury. Allowing the client to smoke in designated outdoor areas (Choice A) is unsafe as smoking near oxygen equipment can lead to a fire. Placing the oxygen equipment 10 feet away from any open flames (Choice B) is important to prevent fire hazards, but keeping the tanks upright is more directly related to preventing injuries. Restricting fluid intake while using oxygen (Choice D) is not necessary for safety in home oxygen therapy.
4. A nurse is teaching a client who has multiple sclerosis (MS) about strategies to reduce fatigue. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Exercise to the point of exhaustion
- B. Rest as needed throughout the day
- C. Avoid physical activity
- D. Exercise only once per week
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include is to 'Rest as needed throughout the day.' Fatigue is a common symptom of multiple sclerosis (MS), and adequate rest is essential to manage it effectively. Resting as needed helps conserve energy and prevent fatigue from worsening. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. 'Exercise to the point of exhaustion' is not recommended as it can lead to increased fatigue. 'Avoiding physical activity' entirely is not advisable as appropriate exercise can help maintain strength and energy levels. 'Exercising only once per week' may not be sufficient to combat fatigue and maintain overall well-being in clients with MS.
5. A client is receiving furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?
- A. Sodium
- B. Potassium
- C. Calcium
- D. Magnesium
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potassium. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion through increased urinary excretion. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent hypokalemia, which can lead to cardiac dysrhythmias, muscle weakness, and other serious complications. Monitoring sodium, calcium, and magnesium levels is not typically associated with furosemide therapy, making choices A, C, and D incorrect.
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