Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?

• A. The client is experiencing an adverse reaction to rifampin.
• B. The client's seizure disorder is no longer under control.
• C. The client is showing evidence of phenytoin toxicity.
• D. The client is having adverse effects due to combination antimicrobial therapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.

2. Which intervention is essential when caring for a client with heart failure on fluid restriction?

• A. Encourage the client to drink water throughout the day
• B. Monitor the client's weight daily to assess fluid balance
• C. Limit fluid intake during meals
• D. Weigh the client once a week to assess fluid balance

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor the client's weight daily to assess fluid balance.' When caring for a client with heart failure on fluid restriction, it is essential to monitor their weight daily to evaluate fluid balance accurately. This helps healthcare providers assess if the client is retaining excess fluid, a common issue in heart failure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Encouraging the client to drink water throughout the day contradicts fluid restriction. Limiting fluid intake during meals may not provide a comprehensive assessment of fluid balance, and weighing the client once a week is not frequent enough to detect rapid changes in fluid status that could worsen heart failure symptoms.

3. What is the most appropriate intervention for a client with phlebitis at the IV site?

• A. Apply a warm compress to the site
• B. Discontinue the IV and notify the provider
• C. Increase the IV flow rate to prevent dehydration
• D. Monitor the site for signs of infection

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for a client with phlebitis at the IV site is to discontinue the IV and notify the provider. Phlebitis is inflammation of the vein, and continuing the IV can lead to complications such as infection or thrombosis. Applying a warm compress may provide symptomatic relief but does not address the root cause. Increasing the IV flow rate is not indicated and may worsen the inflammation. Monitoring for signs of infection is important, but the priority is to remove the source of inflammation by discontinuing the IV.

4. What is the most important action when providing wound care to a client with a pressure ulcer?

• A. Apply a dry, sterile dressing to the wound
• B. Cleanse the wound with normal saline
• C. Perform a wound culture before applying ointment
• D. Cover the wound with a wet-to-dry dressing

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Performing a wound culture before applying ointment is crucial when providing wound care to a client with a pressure ulcer. This action helps identify any underlying infections, allowing healthcare providers to select the most appropriate treatment. Options A, B, and D are not as critical as performing a wound culture, as they focus on wound dressing and cleansing rather than identifying potential infections.

5. A client with coronary artery disease (CAD) is taking a low-dose aspirin daily. The nurse is reinforcing teaching with the client. The nurse should include that this medication has which of the following therapeutic effects?

• A. Analgesic
• B. Antiplatelet
• C. Anticoagulant
• D. Thrombolytic

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Antiplatelet. Aspirin works by inhibiting platelet aggregation, making it an antiplatelet agent. This effect helps reduce the risk of blood clot formation in clients with CAD. Choice A, Analgesic, is incorrect because aspirin's primary action in this context is not pain relief. Choice C, Anticoagulant, is incorrect as aspirin does not directly inhibit coagulation factors. Choice D, Thrombolytic, is incorrect as aspirin does not actively break down clots but rather prevents their formation.

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