ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 with NGN
1. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?
- A. The client is experiencing an adverse reaction to rifampin.
- B. The client's seizure disorder is no longer under control.
- C. The client is showing evidence of phenytoin toxicity.
- D. The client is having adverse effects due to combination antimicrobial therapy.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has an altered mental status and has become aggressive. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse clarify with the provider prior to administration?
- A. Haloperidol
- B. Zolpidem
- C. Morphine
- D. Lorazepam
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Zolpidem. Zolpidem is a sedative-hypnotic medication that can worsen altered mental status, especially in clients who are already aggressive. Therefore, the nurse should clarify this prescription with the provider before administration to ensure it is safe for the client. Choice A, Haloperidol, is an antipsychotic commonly used to manage aggression in clients with altered mental status, making it an appropriate choice in this scenario. Choice C, Morphine, is an opioid analgesic and would not directly impact the client's altered mental status or aggression. Choice D, Lorazepam, is a benzodiazepine used to manage anxiety and agitation, which could be beneficial in this situation but does not have the same potential to exacerbate altered mental status as Zolpidem.
3. A client is experiencing difficulty voiding following the removal of an indwelling catheter. What action should the nurse take to assist the client?
- A. Assess for bladder distention after 4 hours
- B. Pour warm water over the perineum
- C. Restrict the client's oral fluid intake
- D. Restrict movement for at least 12 hours
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to assist the client who is experiencing difficulty voiding after the removal of an indwelling catheter is to pour warm water over the perineum. This technique can help stimulate urination by promoting relaxation of the perineal muscles and improving blood flow to the area. Assessing for bladder distention after 4 hours (Choice A) is important but not the immediate intervention needed to assist the client in voiding. Restricting the client's oral fluid intake (Choice C) can exacerbate the issue by reducing urine production. Restricting movement for at least 12 hours (Choice D) is unnecessary and may lead to discomfort and other complications.
4. During a home visit to an elderly client with mild dementia, the client's daughter reports that she has one major problem with her mother. She says, 'She sleeps most of the day and is up most of the night. I can't get a decent night's sleep anymore.' Which suggestions should the nurse make to the daughter?
- A. Ask the client's physician for a strong sleep medicine
- B. Establish a set routine for rising, hygiene, meals, short rest periods, and bedtime
- C. Engage the client in simple, brief exercises or a short walk when she gets drowsy during the day
- D. Promote relaxation before bedtime with a warm bath or relaxing music
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to establish a set routine for rising, hygiene, meals, short rest periods, and bedtime. By creating a structured daily schedule, the client's natural sleep-wake cycle can be regulated, helping to address the issue of daytime sleeping and nighttime wakefulness. Option A, asking for a strong sleep medicine, may not address the underlying cause and can have potential side effects in the elderly. Option C, engaging in exercises when drowsy, may not be suitable for someone with dementia and could disrupt sleep patterns further. Option D, promoting relaxation before bedtime, is helpful but may not be sufficient to address the client's significant sleep issue.
5. What are the nursing interventions for a patient with hypertension?
- A. Monitor blood pressure and educate the patient about lifestyle changes
- B. Administer antihypertensive medications and provide dietary education
- C. Provide regular monitoring of blood pressure and administer diuretics
- D. Provide regular blood glucose monitoring
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct nursing interventions for a patient with hypertension involve monitoring blood pressure and educating the patient about lifestyle changes. These interventions help in managing hypertension by keeping track of the patient's blood pressure readings and empowering them with knowledge to make lifestyle modifications such as adopting a healthy diet, regular exercise, stress management, and avoiding smoking and excessive alcohol consumption. Administering antihypertensive medications (choice B) is typically done by a healthcare provider rather than a nurse. While regular monitoring of blood pressure (choice C) is important, administering diuretics is a specific medical intervention that should be prescribed by a healthcare provider. Monitoring blood glucose (choice D) is more relevant for patients with diabetes rather than hypertension.
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