Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?

• A. The client is experiencing an adverse reaction to rifampin.
• B. The client's seizure disorder is no longer under control.
• C. The client is showing evidence of phenytoin toxicity.
• D. The client is having adverse effects due to combination antimicrobial therapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.

2. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following food choices by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. Canned soup
• B. Grilled chicken
• C. Peanut butter
• D. Orange juice

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Grilled chicken is the correct choice as it is a low-potassium, low-sodium option suitable for clients with chronic kidney disease. Canned soup (choice A) is typically high in sodium, which is not recommended for this client population. Peanut butter (choice C) is high in potassium and phosphorus, which should be limited in individuals with kidney disease. Orange juice (choice D) is high in potassium and should be consumed in moderation by clients with chronic kidney disease.

3. How should a healthcare professional assess a patient with potential pneumonia?

• A. Assess lung sounds and monitor oxygen saturation
• B. Monitor for fever and sputum production
• C. Auscultate heart sounds and check for cyanosis
• D. Monitor for chest pain and administer oxygen

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correctly assessing a patient with potential pneumonia involves listening to lung sounds and monitoring oxygen saturation. Lung sounds can reveal abnormal breath sounds associated with pneumonia, such as crackles or diminished breath sounds. Oxygen saturation monitoring helps in detecting respiratory distress, a common complication of pneumonia. Monitoring for fever and sputum production (Choice B) is important but not as specific as assessing lung sounds and oxygen saturation. Auscultating heart sounds and checking for cyanosis (Choice C) are not primary assessments for pneumonia. Monitoring for chest pain and administering oxygen (Choice D) are relevant interventions but do not address the initial assessment of pneumonia.

4. A nurse is teaching a client who is at risk for developing osteoporosis. Which of the following recommendations should the nurse make?

• A. Walk for at least 30 minutes each day
• B. Avoid sunlight exposure
• C. Take vitamin B12 supplements
• D. Increase calcium intake to 1,500 mg per day

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to increase calcium intake to 1,500 mg per day. Adequate calcium intake is essential for maintaining bone density and reducing the risk of osteoporosis. Walking for at least 30 minutes each day is beneficial for overall health but is not as directly related to osteoporosis prevention as calcium intake. Sunlight exposure is important for vitamin D synthesis, which is necessary for calcium absorption, so avoiding sunlight exposure would not be recommended. Vitamin B12 supplements are not directly related to bone health or osteoporosis prevention, so this would not be the most appropriate recommendation.

5. A healthcare professional is managing a client with a wound infection. What is the priority action?

• A. Change the wound dressing every 12 hours
• B. Perform a wound culture before applying antibiotics
• C. Apply a wet-to-dry dressing to the wound
• D. Cleanse the wound with a solution of alcohol and water

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Performing a wound culture before applying antibiotics is crucial to identify the specific pathogen causing the infection. This helps in selecting the most effective antibiotics for treatment. Changing the wound dressing, applying a wet-to-dry dressing, or cleansing the wound are important interventions but should follow the assessment and identification of the infecting organism through a wound culture to guide appropriate treatment.

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