Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?

• A. The client is experiencing an adverse reaction to rifampin.
• B. The client's seizure disorder is no longer under control.
• C. The client is showing evidence of phenytoin toxicity.
• D. The client is having adverse effects due to combination antimicrobial therapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has diabetes mellitus and is receiving insulin. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. A fasting blood glucose of 90 mg/dL
• B. A blood glucose level of 200 mg/dL
• C. A hemoglobin A1c of 6%
• D. A fasting blood glucose of 100 mg/dL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A blood glucose level of 200 mg/dL indicates hyperglycemia, which may necessitate insulin adjustment to better control the client's blood sugar levels. A fasting blood glucose of 90 mg/dL (choice A) is within the normal range, a hemoglobin A1c of 6% (choice C) is indicative of good long-term blood sugar control, and a fasting blood glucose of 100 mg/dL (choice D) is also within the normal range. Therefore, these findings do not require immediate reporting to the provider.

3. What is the proper technique for administering an intramuscular (IM) injection?

• A. Locate the injection site and insert at 90 degrees
• B. Insert needle at a 45-degree angle
• C. Massage the site after injection
• D. Insert needle at a 15-degree angle

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct technique for administering an intramuscular (IM) injection is to locate the injection site and insert the needle at a 90-degree angle. This angle ensures that the medication is delivered into the muscle for proper absorption. Choice B is incorrect because a 45-degree angle is typically used for subcutaneous injections, not intramuscular. Choice C is incorrect as massaging the site after an injection can cause the medication to disperse unevenly. Choice D is incorrect as a 15-degree angle would not reach the muscle layer effectively for an IM injection.

4. What is the first priority for a patient in respiratory distress?

• A. Administer oxygen
• B. Assess airway patency
• C. Monitor oxygen saturation
• D. Call for assistance

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer oxygen. In a patient experiencing respiratory distress, the primary concern is ensuring an adequate oxygen supply to the body. By administering oxygen, you can help improve oxygenation, which is crucial for the patient's overall well-being. Assessing airway patency is important but administering oxygen takes precedence as it directly addresses the oxygenation concern. Monitoring oxygen saturation is also essential, but the immediate action should be to provide oxygen. Calling for assistance can be important but is not the first priority when dealing with a patient in respiratory distress.

5. A nurse is receiving change-of-shift report for a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to assess first?

• A. A client who has sinus arrhythmia and is receiving cardiac monitoring.
• B. A client who has diabetes mellitus and a hemoglobin A1C of 6.8%.
• C. A client who has epidural analgesia and weakness in the lower extremities.
• D. A client who has a hip fracture and a new onset of tachypnea.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. New onset of tachypnea indicates a potential respiratory complication that requires immediate attention. Assessing the client with a hip fracture and tachypnea first is crucial to address the respiratory issue and prevent further deterioration. Choices A, B, and C do not present immediate life-threatening complications that require urgent assessment compared to a new onset of tachypnea.

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