Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?

• A. The client is experiencing an adverse reaction to rifampin.
• B. The client's seizure disorder is no longer under control.
• C. The client is showing evidence of phenytoin toxicity.
• D. The client is having adverse effects due to combination antimicrobial therapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.

2. What are the nursing interventions for a patient with COPD?

• A. Administer oxygen and provide breathing exercises
• B. Suction airway secretions and encourage coughing
• C. Administer bronchodilators and monitor oxygen saturation
• D. Restrict fluids and encourage mobility

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer oxygen and provide breathing exercises. These interventions are essential in managing COPD as they help improve lung function and oxygenation. Choice B is incorrect as suctioning airway secretions and encouraging coughing are not typically indicated for COPD patients. Choice C is incorrect as while administering bronchodilators is common in COPD treatment, monitoring oxygen saturation alone is not a comprehensive intervention. Choice D is incorrect as restricting fluids is not a standard intervention for COPD, and encouraging mobility, although beneficial, is not as directly related to managing COPD symptoms as administering oxygen and providing breathing exercises.

3. How should a healthcare provider assess and manage a patient with anemia?

• A. Monitor hemoglobin levels and provide iron supplements
• B. Administer B12 injections
• C. Monitor for signs of infection and administer folic acid
• D. Administer oxygen therapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Question: To assess and manage a patient with anemia, monitoring hemoglobin levels and providing iron supplements are crucial. Anemia is commonly caused by iron deficiency, making iron supplementation a cornerstone of treatment. B12 injections (Choice B) are more relevant for treating megaloblastic anemia, not the typical iron-deficiency anemia. Monitoring for signs of infection and administering folic acid (Choice C) are important in specific types of anemia like megaloblastic anemia, but not the first-line approach for anemia management. Administering oxygen therapy (Choice D) is not the primary intervention for anemia unless severe hypoxemia is present, which is not typically seen in anemia.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is in the early stages of hypovolemic shock. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Heart rate 60/min
• B. Increased urinary output
• C. Increased respiratory rate
• D. Hypothermia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the early stages of hypovolemic shock, the body initiates compensatory mechanisms to maintain perfusion. One of these mechanisms is an increased respiratory rate to improve oxygen delivery. This helps to offset the decreased circulating blood volume. A heart rate of 60/min (choice A) is not expected in hypovolemic shock; instead, tachycardia is a common finding due to the body's attempt to maintain cardiac output. Increased urinary output (choice B) is not typically seen in hypovolemic shock as the body tries to conserve fluid. Hypothermia (choice D) is usually a late sign of shock when the body's compensatory mechanisms are failing, and perfusion is severely compromised.

5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory report of a client who is receiving filgrastim. Which of the following laboratory values should the healthcare professional monitor to determine the effectiveness of the treatment?

• A. WBC count.
• B. Serum potassium.
• C. Hemoglobin level.
• D. Serum creatinine.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Filgrastim works by stimulating the production of white blood cells. Therefore, monitoring the white blood cell (WBC) count is essential to assess the effectiveness of the treatment. Choice B, serum potassium, is not directly affected by filgrastim therapy. Choice C, hemoglobin level, is important but not the primary indicator of filgrastim's effectiveness. Choice D, serum creatinine, is unrelated to the action of filgrastim and would not reflect its effectiveness.

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