Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?

• A. The client is experiencing an adverse reaction to rifampin.
• B. The client's seizure disorder is no longer under control.
• C. The client is showing evidence of phenytoin toxicity.
• D. The client is having adverse effects due to combination antimicrobial therapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.

2. A nurse is preparing to apply a transdermal nicotine patch for a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Shave hairy areas of skin prior to application.
• B. Wear gloves to apply the patch to the client's skin.
• C. Apply the patch within 1 hr of removing it from the protective pouch.
• D. Remove the previous patch and place it in a tissue.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to wear gloves when applying the transdermal nicotine patch to prevent the nurse from absorbing nicotine through the skin. Choice A is incorrect because shaving hairy areas of skin is not necessary for applying a transdermal patch. Choice C is incorrect as transdermal patches should be applied immediately after removal from the protective pouch, not necessarily within 1 hour. Choice D is incorrect because the previous patch should be disposed of properly following institutional guidelines, not placed in a tissue.

3. A client with IV fluids has developed redness and warmth at the IV site. What is the next step the nurse should take?

• A. Apply a cold compress to the IV site
• B. Discontinue the IV and notify the healthcare provider
• C. Monitor the IV site for signs of infection
• D. Increase the IV flow rate to improve circulation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client develops redness and warmth at the IV site, it is indicative of phlebitis, which is inflammation of the vein. The next step for the nurse should be to discontinue the IV and notify the healthcare provider. Applying a cold compress may provide temporary relief but does not address the underlying issue. Monitoring for infection is important, but in this case, the presence of redness and warmth suggests phlebitis, not infection. Increasing the IV flow rate can exacerbate the inflammation and should be avoided.

4. The nurse is caring for a manic client in the seclusion room, and it is time for lunch. It is MOST appropriate for the nurse to take which of the following actions?

• A. Take the client to the dining room with 1:1 supervision
• B. Inform the client they may go to the dining room when they control their behavior
• C. Hold the meal until the client is able to come out of seclusion
• D. Serve the meal to the client in the seclusion room

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the scenario described, the manic client is in the seclusion room, and it is most appropriate for the nurse to serve the meal to the client in the seclusion room. This action helps maintain the client's nutritional needs while managing their behavior. Taking the client to the dining room with 1:1 supervision (Choice A) may pose safety risks both for the client and others. Informing the client they may go to the dining room when they control their behavior (Choice B) may not be feasible in a manic state. Holding the meal until the client is able to come out of seclusion (Choice C) can lead to nutritional deficiencies and does not address the immediate need for nutrition during the episode of mania.

5. A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for haloperidol. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to report to the provider?

• A. Weight gain.
• B. Dry mouth.
• C. Sedation.
• D. Shuffling gait.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Shuffling gait. A shuffling gait can indicate extrapyramidal symptoms, a potentially serious side effect of haloperidol. Extrapyramidal symptoms include movement disorders such as dystonia, akathisia, parkinsonism, and tardive dyskinesia. Reporting this symptom promptly is crucial to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and C are common side effects of haloperidol but are not as urgent or indicative of serious complications compared to a shuffling gait.

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