a nurse is caring for a client who is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin w
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 with NGN

1. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.

2. What should be done to minimize the risk of injury for a client with dementia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to ensure the client has consistent caregivers. This helps reduce confusion and stress for clients with dementia by providing familiarity and routine. Dimming the lights in the client's room (Choice B) may not directly address the risk of injury. Allowing the client to sleep with the bedrails raised (Choice C) can pose a risk if not properly monitored. Encouraging family members to stay with the client (Choice D) may not always be feasible and may not provide the necessary professional support and consistency that consistent caregivers can offer.

3. How should a healthcare provider assess a patient with sepsis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In sepsis, it is crucial to monitor vital signs to assess the patient's condition and administer fluids to maintain circulation. This approach helps in stabilizing blood pressure and perfusion. While monitoring for fever and administering antibiotics (choice B) is important in managing sepsis, the initial priority lies in assessing and stabilizing the patient's hemodynamic status. Checking for tachycardia and elevated white blood cell count (choice C) can be part of the assessment but does not encompass the immediate intervention needed in sepsis. Administering fluids and providing nutritional support (choice D) are essential in managing sepsis, but the primary step should be to assess the patient's condition through vital sign monitoring.

4. A nurse is collecting data from a client who has Tourette syndrome. The client reports taking haloperidol 0.5 mL orally three times a day at home. Which of the following components of the prescription should the nurse question?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should question the dosage of haloperidol as it is typically administered in milligrams (mg) and not milliliters (mL). The dosage should be expressed in a standardized unit for accuracy and to prevent medication errors. Frequency, timing of doses, and route are also important components of a prescription, but in this case, the nurse should focus on the unusual dosage form.

5. A nurse is teaching a client with heart failure about dietary restrictions. What food should be limited?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bananas. Bananas are high in potassium, which should be limited in clients with heart failure to prevent electrolyte imbalances. While leafy green vegetables and whole grains are generally healthy options, they are not typically restricted in heart failure patients. Potatoes, although they contain potassium, are not as high in potassium as bananas and are not usually restricted as strictly.

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