Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?

• A. The client is experiencing an adverse reaction to rifampin.
• B. The client's seizure disorder is no longer under control.
• C. The client is showing evidence of phenytoin toxicity.
• D. The client is having adverse effects due to combination antimicrobial therapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.

2. Which of the following is a key consideration when providing wound care for a client with a pressure ulcer?

• A. Cover the wound with a dry, sterile dressing
• B. Perform a wound culture before applying ointment
• C. Cleanse the wound with alcohol
• D. Cover the wound with a wet-to-dry dressing

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Performing a wound culture before applying ointment is crucial when providing wound care for a client with a pressure ulcer. This step helps identify the presence of any infection, allowing for appropriate treatment. Choice A is incorrect because covering the wound with a dry, sterile dressing may not address potential infections. Choice C is incorrect as cleansing the wound with alcohol can be too harsh and drying to the surrounding skin. Choice D is incorrect because covering the wound with a wet-to-dry dressing is not typically recommended for pressure ulcers, as it can cause trauma to the wound bed during removal.

3. When collecting data from a client with posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD), which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?

• A. Amnesia
• B. Hypervigilance
• C. Hallucinations
• D. Severe agitation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct manifestation to expect when collecting data from a client with PTSD is hypervigilance. Hypervigilance refers to increased alertness, which is a common symptom of PTSD. This heightened state of awareness is characterized by an exaggerated startle response, being easily startled, and constantly scanning the environment for potential threats. Amnesia (choice A) is not typically a primary manifestation of PTSD; it is more commonly associated with dissociative disorders. Hallucinations (choice C) involve perceiving things that are not present and are not typically a hallmark symptom of PTSD. Severe agitation (choice D) may occur in individuals with PTSD, but hypervigilance is a more specific and common manifestation associated with this disorder.

4. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has diabetes mellitus and is receiving insulin. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Hemoglobin A1c of 6%
• B. Fasting blood glucose of 90 mg/dL
• C. Blood glucose of 200 mg/dL
• D. Blood glucose of 100 mg/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A blood glucose level of 200 mg/dL indicates hyperglycemia and should be reported for potential insulin adjustment.

5. What are the signs of opioid withdrawal, and how should it be managed?

• A. Sweating, nausea; administer methadone
• B. Muscle cramps, vomiting; administer naloxone
• C. Tremors, sweating; administer buprenorphine
• D. Fever, agitation; provide sedatives

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The signs of opioid withdrawal typically include sweating and nausea. The correct management approach involves administering methadone to alleviate the symptoms. Choice B is incorrect because naloxone is used to reverse opioid overdose, not for managing withdrawal symptoms. Choice C is incorrect as buprenorphine is typically used to treat opioid addiction, not just withdrawal symptoms. Choice D is incorrect as sedatives are not the primary treatment for opioid withdrawal.

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