ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 with NGN
1. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?
- A. The client is experiencing an adverse reaction to rifampin.
- B. The client's seizure disorder is no longer under control.
- C. The client is showing evidence of phenytoin toxicity.
- D. The client is having adverse effects due to combination antimicrobial therapy.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is having difficulty voiding following the removal of an indwelling urinary catheter. Which of the following interventions should the nurse take?
- A. Assess for bladder distention after 6 hours
- B. Encourage the client to use a bedpan in the supine position
- C. Restrict the client's intake of oral fluids
- D. Pour warm water over the client's perineum
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to pour warm water over the client's perineum. This intervention can help stimulate voiding after catheter removal by promoting relaxation of the perineal muscles and increasing sensory input to the bladder. Assessing for bladder distention after 6 hours (Choice A) is important but not the initial intervention for difficulty voiding. Encouraging the client to use a bedpan in the supine position (Choice B) may not be effective in promoting voiding. Restricting the client's intake of oral fluids (Choice C) is not appropriate as hydration is important for urinary function.
3. A client has a prescription for ciprofloxacin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication with an antacid if you experience gastrointestinal upset.
- B. You should limit your caffeine intake while taking this medication.
- C. This medication may cause your urine to turn dark brown.
- D. You should avoid taking this medication with dairy products.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'You should avoid taking this medication with dairy products.' Ciprofloxacin should not be taken with dairy products as they can interfere with the absorption of the medication. Choice A is incorrect because ciprofloxacin should not be taken with antacids containing aluminum or magnesium. Choice B is incorrect as there is no specific limitation on caffeine intake associated with ciprofloxacin. Choice C is incorrect as ciprofloxacin does not typically cause urine to turn dark brown.
4. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client with dementia who frequently becomes agitated. What should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Investigate the client's fluid and electrolyte balance
- B. Investigate the client's recent medication changes
- C. Investigate recent changes in cognitive functioning
- D. Investigate the client's psychosocial environment
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to investigate the client's recent medication changes. In a client with dementia who frequently becomes agitated, medication changes can often be a significant factor contributing to their behavior. Checking recent medication changes can help identify if any specific medication is causing or exacerbating the agitation. Choice A about fluid and electrolyte balance is less likely to be the priority unless there are specific indications in the medical record. Choice C, investigating recent changes in cognitive functioning, may be important but addressing the agitation first is a more immediate concern. Choice D, investigating the client's psychosocial environment, is also important but may not directly address the immediate cause of the agitation as medication changes could.
5. How should a healthcare professional assess and manage a patient with delirium?
- A. Assess for confusion and reorient the patient
- B. Provide a quiet environment and administer sedatives
- C. Provide oxygen therapy and monitor vital signs
- D. Provide pain relief and monitor for signs of recovery
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct way to assess and manage a patient with delirium is by assessing for confusion and reorienting the patient. Delirium is characterized by acute confusion and disturbance in attention, so reorienting the patient to time, place, and person can help improve their awareness and cognition. Providing a quiet environment is important to reduce stimuli that can exacerbate delirium, but administering sedatives may worsen the condition. Oxygen therapy and monitoring vital signs are essential aspects of general patient care but are not specific to managing delirium. Providing pain relief is important for overall patient comfort but may not directly address the core issue of delirium.
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