a nurse is caring for a client who is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin w
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Nursing Elites

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ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 with NGN

1. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.

2. A nurse is caring for an infant who is receiving IV fluids for dehydration. Which of the following should the nurse recognize as a positive response to the therapy?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Increased urine output is a positive sign that the IV fluids are effectively treating dehydration. Tachycardia (choice A) and hypotension (choice B) are signs of dehydration and would not be considered positive responses to therapy. Diarrhea (choice D) can worsen dehydration and is not a positive response to IV fluid therapy.

3. A client takes prednisone daily for the treatment of chronic asthma. The nurse should plan to monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Gastric ulcer formation. Prednisone, a corticosteroid, increases the risk of gastric ulcer formation, especially with long-term use. While prednisone can also lead to hyperglycemia (choice A) and hypertension (choice B) as adverse effects, monitoring for gastric ulcer formation is a priority due to its association with corticosteroid therapy. Diarrhea (choice D) is not a common adverse effect of prednisone and is less likely compared to gastric ulcers.

4. A healthcare professional is caring for a client with coronary artery disease (CAD) who is prescribed aspirin. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: A history of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients with a history of gastrointestinal bleeding are at increased risk of complications when taking aspirin due to its effects on platelet function and the gastrointestinal tract. Reporting this finding to the provider is crucial to ensure patient safety. Choices B, C, and D are not directly related to the increased risk associated with aspirin use in patients with a history of gastrointestinal bleeding, making them less relevant in this scenario. While monitoring platelet count and PT are important in patients taking aspirin, a history of gastrointestinal bleeding takes precedence as it directly impacts the safety and effectiveness of aspirin therapy in this client.

5. What are the key signs of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) that a nurse should monitor for?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Monitor for changes in the level of consciousness.' Key signs of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) include changes in the level of consciousness and pupil dilation. Assessing for bradycardia and monitoring for vomiting are not typically considered primary signs of increased ICP. While bradycardia and vomiting can occur with increased ICP, they are not as specific or sensitive as changes in consciousness and pupil dilation.

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