Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?

• A. The client is experiencing an adverse reaction to rifampin.
• B. The client's seizure disorder is no longer under control.
• C. The client is showing evidence of phenytoin toxicity.
• D. The client is having adverse effects due to combination antimicrobial therapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.

2. What is the priority when managing a client with a chest tube postoperatively?

• A. Clamp the chest tube for 30 minutes every 4 hours
• B. Check for air leaks and proper functioning of the chest tube
• C. Encourage deep breathing and coughing every 2 hours
• D. Encourage frequent coughing to clear secretions

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority when managing a client with a chest tube postoperatively is to check for air leaks and ensure the proper functioning of the chest tube. This is crucial to prevent complications such as pneumothorax or hemothorax. Clamping the chest tube intermittently can lead to a buildup of pressure in the pleural space and should not be done without a specific medical indication. Encouraging deep breathing and coughing helps with lung expansion but is not the priority over ensuring the chest tube's proper function. Encouraging frequent coughing may increase the risk of dislodging the chest tube or causing complications.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has dementia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse take to minimize the risk of injury for this client?

• A. Use a bed exit alarm system
• B. Raise all four side rails while the client is in bed
• C. Apply one soft wrist restraint
• D. Dim the lights in the client's room

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Using a bed exit alarm system is crucial in minimizing the risk of injury for a client with dementia. This intervention helps alert staff when the client is attempting to leave the bed, reducing the chances of falls. Raising all four side rails while the client is in bed (Choice B) can lead to restraint-related issues and is not recommended unless necessary for safety reasons. Applying a soft wrist restraint (Choice C) is generally not the first choice in managing clients with dementia due to the risk of complications and loss of mobility. Dimming the lights in the client's room (Choice D) may not directly address the risk of injury associated with dementia and may even increase the risk of falls due to poor visibility.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 hr postoperative following rhinoplasty. Which of the following manifestations requires immediate action by the nurse?

• A. Increase in frequency of swallowing.
• B. Moderate sanguineous drainage on the drip pad.
• C. Bruising to the face.
• D. Absent gag reflex.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increase in frequency of swallowing. After rhinoplasty, an increase in frequency of swallowing may indicate possible bleeding, which requires immediate action by the nurse. The client could be experiencing postoperative bleeding, and prompt intervention is necessary to prevent complications. Choice B, moderate sanguineous drainage on the drip pad, is expected in the immediate postoperative period and does not require immediate action unless it becomes excessive. Choice C, bruising to the face, is a common postoperative finding and does not require immediate action unless it is excessive or affects the airway. Choice D, absent gag reflex, would not be expected immediately following rhinoplasty and would require intervention, but the manifestation of increased swallowing frequency is a higher priority due to its association with potential bleeding.

5. What are the principles of aseptic technique in wound care?

• A. Use sterile gloves and a clean dressing
• B. Apply a clean dressing using sterile scissors
• C. Wash hands thoroughly before applying the dressing
• D. Use a clean glove and avoid contact with the wound

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Use sterile gloves and a clean dressing.' Aseptic technique in wound care requires the use of sterile gloves to prevent infection. Choice B is incorrect as the method of application does not primarily focus on maintaining asepsis. Choice C, while important for infection control, is not specific to aseptic technique in wound care. Choice D is incorrect because using a single clean glove does not ensure the level of sterility needed for aseptic wound care.

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