Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?

• A. The client is experiencing an adverse reaction to rifampin.
• B. The client's seizure disorder is no longer under control.
• C. The client is showing evidence of phenytoin toxicity.
• D. The client is having adverse effects due to combination antimicrobial therapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.

2. A client is using a metered-dose inhaler (MDI) for asthma management. Which of the following actions by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. Inhale rapidly through the mouth after pressing down on the inhaler
• B. Exhale completely before pressing down on the inhaler
• C. Hold your breath for 5-10 seconds after inhaling
• D. Inhale slowly while pressing down on the inhaler

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to hold your breath for 5-10 seconds after inhaling when using a metered-dose inhaler (MDI) for asthma management. This action ensures proper medication absorption in the lungs. Inhaling rapidly (choice A) may cause the medication to impact the mouth/throat rather than the lungs. Exhaling completely before inhalation (choice B) does not optimize medication delivery. Inhaling slowly (choice D) may not allow the medication to reach the lungs effectively.

3. A nurse is caring for a client with dementia who frequently attempts to get out of bed unsupervised. What is the best intervention?

• A. Use restraints to prevent the client from getting out of bed
• B. Encourage family members to stay with the client at all times
• C. Use a bed exit alarm system
• D. Keep the client's room dark and quiet to reduce stimulation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The best intervention for a client with dementia who frequently attempts to get out of bed unsupervised is to use a bed exit alarm system (Choice C). A bed exit alarm can alert staff when the client tries to leave the bed, helping to prevent falls. Using restraints (Choice A) is not recommended as it can lead to physical and psychological harm. While having family members present (Choice B) can be beneficial, it may not be feasible at all times. Keeping the client's room dark and quiet (Choice D) may not address the immediate safety concern of the client attempting to get out of bed.

4. What are the signs and symptoms of opioid withdrawal, and how should they be managed?

• A. Nausea, sweating, and increased heart rate; manage with methadone
• B. Pain and restlessness; manage with naloxone
• C. Hallucinations and muscle cramps; manage with clonidine
• D. Severe vomiting and seizures; manage with benzodiazepines

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The signs and symptoms of opioid withdrawal include nausea, sweating, and increased heart rate. Methadone is commonly used to manage opioid withdrawal symptoms by alleviating them. Choice B, managing with naloxone, is incorrect as naloxone is primarily used for opioid overdose reversal, not withdrawal. Choice C, managing with clonidine, is incorrect as clonidine is used to manage some symptoms of withdrawal, such as anxiety, agitation, and hypertension, but not hallucinations. Choice D, managing with benzodiazepines, is incorrect as benzodiazepines are not typically used as first-line treatment for opioid withdrawal; they may be considered in specific cases but are not a standard approach.

5. What are the potential complications of a patient receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN)?

• A. Infection and electrolyte imbalance
• B. Hyperglycemia and sepsis
• C. Kidney failure and hypovolemia
• D. Fluid overload and liver damage

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Infection and electrolyte imbalance are common complications of TPN. Infection can occur due to the invasive nature of TPN, which provides a direct route for pathogens. Electrolyte imbalances can arise from the composition of the TPN solution or improper monitoring. Hyperglycemia and sepsis (Choice B) are potential complications but are not as directly associated with TPN as infection and electrolyte imbalance. Kidney failure and hypovolemia (Choice C) are less common complications of TPN. Fluid overload and liver damage (Choice D) are potential complications but are not as frequently observed as infection and electrolyte imbalance.

Similar Questions