Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?

• A. The client is experiencing an adverse reaction to rifampin.
• B. The client's seizure disorder is no longer under control.
• C. The client is showing evidence of phenytoin toxicity.
• D. The client is having adverse effects due to combination antimicrobial therapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.

2. A client with IV fluids has developed redness and warmth at the IV site. What is the next step the nurse should take?

• A. Apply a cold compress to the IV site
• B. Discontinue the IV and notify the healthcare provider
• C. Monitor the IV site for signs of infection
• D. Increase the IV flow rate to improve circulation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client develops redness and warmth at the IV site, it is indicative of phlebitis, which is inflammation of the vein. The next step for the nurse should be to discontinue the IV and notify the healthcare provider. Applying a cold compress may provide temporary relief but does not address the underlying issue. Monitoring for infection is important, but in this case, the presence of redness and warmth suggests phlebitis, not infection. Increasing the IV flow rate can exacerbate the inflammation and should be avoided.

3. A nurse in the emergency department is caring for a client who has full-thickness burns of the thorax and upper torso. After securing the client's airway, which of the following is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Providing pain management.
• B. Offering emotional support.
• C. Preventing infection.
• D. Initiating IV fluids.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After securing the airway, initiating IV fluids is the priority to prevent hypovolemic shock in clients with severe burns. IV fluids help maintain circulating volume and prevent a drop in blood pressure due to fluid loss. Providing pain management, offering emotional support, and preventing infection are important aspects of care but are secondary to ensuring adequate fluid resuscitation in clients with severe burns.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has bipolar disorder and is experiencing acute mania. Which of the following findings is the nurse's priority?

• A. Increased speech
• B. Lack of sleep
• C. Agitation
• D. Poor concentration

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is lack of sleep (choice B). In acute mania, lack of sleep can exacerbate symptoms, lead to exhaustion, and pose serious risks to the client's well-being. Addressing the client's sleep deprivation is a priority as it can impact their overall health and recovery. Increased speech (choice A) and agitation (choice C) are common in acute mania but do not pose immediate physical risks like lack of sleep. Poor concentration (choice D) is also a symptom of acute mania but addressing sleep deprivation takes precedence due to its severe consequences.

5. Which dietary advice is most appropriate for a client with chronic kidney disease?

• A. Increase intake of fruits and vegetables
• B. Limit intake of potassium-rich foods
• C. Increase intake of dairy products
• D. Reduce intake of protein-rich foods

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate dietary advice for a client with chronic kidney disease is to limit intake of potassium-rich foods. In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys have difficulty filtering potassium from the blood, leading to high levels that can be harmful. Therefore, reducing potassium intake is crucial to prevent complications. Choices A, C, and D are not the best options for individuals with chronic kidney disease. Increasing intake of fruits and vegetables (choice A) may actually increase potassium consumption. Increasing intake of dairy products (choice C) can lead to higher phosphorus and potassium levels. Reducing protein-rich foods (choice D) is not the primary focus in the early stages of chronic kidney disease, as protein is necessary for overall health unless kidney function declines significantly.

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