Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?

• A. The client is experiencing an adverse reaction to rifampin.
• B. The client's seizure disorder is no longer under control.
• C. The client is showing evidence of phenytoin toxicity.
• D. The client is having adverse effects due to combination antimicrobial therapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.

2. A nurse is caring for a female client who has an indwelling urinary catheter. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Position the drainage bag below the bladder
• B. Wipe the drainage port after emptying
• C. Insert the catheter using sterile technique
• D. Avoid cleansing the urinary meatus

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to wipe the drainage port after emptying. This action helps reduce the risk of infection by maintaining cleanliness. Positioning the drainage bag below the bladder (choice A) is incorrect as it should be positioned below the level of the bladder to prevent backflow of urine. Inserting the catheter using sterile technique (choice C) is not necessary for routine emptying of the drainage bag. Avoiding cleansing the urinary meatus (choice D) is incorrect as proper hygiene should be maintained to prevent infections.

3. What is the priority in managing a client diagnosed with delirium?

• A. Administer anti-anxiety medication
• B. Identify any underlying causes of delirium
• C. Reduce environmental stimulation to calm the client
• D. Encourage deep breathing exercises

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority in managing a client diagnosed with delirium is to identify any underlying causes. Delirium can be caused by various factors such as infections, medications, or metabolic imbalances. By determining the root cause, healthcare providers can address the issue effectively and tailor the treatment plan accordingly. Administering anti-anxiety medication (Choice A) may help manage symptoms but does not address the underlying cause of delirium. Similarly, reducing environmental stimulation (Choice C) and encouraging deep breathing exercises (Choice D) may provide some relief, but they do not target the primary concern of identifying and addressing the underlying causes of delirium.

4. A nurse at a long-term care facility is part of a team preparing a report on the quality of care at the facility. Which of the following information should the nurse recommend including in the report to demonstrate improvement in care quality?

• A. Increased admissions
• B. 12% fewer urinary tract infections
• C. Increased mortality rate
• D. No changes in staffing

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: '12% fewer urinary tract infections.' Tracking infections, such as UTIs, is crucial in assessing care quality improvements as the reduction in infections indicates better infection control practices and overall quality of care. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increased admissions (Choice A) do not directly reflect improvements in care quality. Increased mortality rate (Choice C) is a negative outcome and demonstrates a decline in care quality. No changes in staffing (Choice D) do not provide direct evidence of care quality improvements.

5. A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has dumping syndrome about measures to reduce manifestations. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Drink plenty of fluids after meals
• B. Increase sugar intake
• C. Eat smaller, more frequent meals
• D. Avoid foods high in sugar content

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include in teaching a client with dumping syndrome is to 'Avoid foods high in sugar content.' Dumping syndrome occurs when high-sugar foods move too quickly into the small intestine, leading to symptoms like abdominal cramps, diarrhea, and bloating. By avoiding foods high in sugar content, the client can reduce these symptoms. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Drinking plenty of fluids after meals may exacerbate symptoms by speeding up the movement of food through the digestive system. Increasing sugar intake would worsen dumping syndrome symptoms. While eating smaller, more frequent meals is a good strategy, the key emphasis should be on avoiding high-sugar foods.

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