Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?

• A. The client is experiencing an adverse reaction to rifampin.
• B. The client's seizure disorder is no longer under control.
• C. The client is showing evidence of phenytoin toxicity.
• D. The client is having adverse effects due to combination antimicrobial therapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.

2. What is the best nursing intervention for a patient with hyperkalemia?

• A. Administer potassium-wasting diuretics
• B. Encourage a low-potassium diet
• C. Administer potassium supplements
• D. Administer IV fluids

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer potassium-wasting diuretics. Hyperkalemia, which is high potassium levels, is managed by promoting the excretion of potassium from the body. Potassium-wasting diuretics help the kidneys eliminate excess potassium. Encouraging a low-potassium diet (choice B) is important for long-term management but not the immediate intervention for hyperkalemia. Administering potassium supplements (choice C) would worsen the condition by further increasing potassium levels. Administering IV fluids (choice D) may help with hydration but does not directly address the high potassium levels characteristic of hyperkalemia.

3. A nurse is delegating the ambulation of a client who had knee arthroplasty 5 days ago to an AP. Which of the following information should the nurse share with the AP?

• A. The roommate is up independently
• B. The client ambulates with his slippers on over his antiembolic stockings
• C. The client uses a front-wheeled walker when ambulating
• D. The client had pain meds 30 minutes ago

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. After knee arthroplasty, it is essential for the client to use a front-wheeled walker when ambulating to ensure stability and prevent falls. Sharing this information with the assistive personnel (AP) is crucial for the client's safety and proper rehabilitation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the roommate's independence, the client's footwear over stockings, and the timing of pain medication administration are not directly related to the safe ambulation of a client post-knee arthroplasty.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has been experiencing chronic pain. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?

• A. Provide the client with distractions such as television
• B. Administer pain medication around the clock
• C. Teach the client relaxation techniques
• D. Perform massage therapy on the client

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client experiencing chronic pain is to teach relaxation techniques. This helps the client manage pain more effectively by reducing stress and anxiety, which can contribute to the perception of pain. Providing distractions like television (Choice A) may offer temporary relief but does not address the underlying issue of chronic pain. Administering pain medication around the clock (Choice B) may lead to dependency and not promote holistic pain management. Massage therapy (Choice D) can be beneficial but may not be as effective as teaching relaxation techniques in the long term for managing chronic pain.

5. What is the priority when managing a client with a chest tube postoperatively?

• A. Clamp the chest tube for 30 minutes every 4 hours
• B. Check for air leaks and proper functioning of the chest tube
• C. Encourage deep breathing and coughing every 2 hours
• D. Encourage frequent coughing to clear secretions

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority when managing a client with a chest tube postoperatively is to check for air leaks and ensure the proper functioning of the chest tube. This is crucial to prevent complications such as pneumothorax or hemothorax. Clamping the chest tube intermittently can lead to a buildup of pressure in the pleural space and should not be done without a specific medical indication. Encouraging deep breathing and coughing helps with lung expansion but is not the priority over ensuring the chest tube's proper function. Encouraging frequent coughing may increase the risk of dislodging the chest tube or causing complications.

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