ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor
1. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the healthcare professional monitor while the client is taking this medication?
- A. Sodium
- B. Glucose
- C. Potassium
- D. Calcium
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium. Furosemide is a diuretic that can cause potassium depletion due to increased urinary excretion. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent hypokalemia, which can lead to serious complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Sodium (choice A) levels are not typically affected by furosemide. Glucose (choice B) monitoring is important with other medications like corticosteroids but is not directly related to furosemide use. Calcium (choice D) levels are not significantly impacted by furosemide.
2. A nurse is preparing to perform a sterile dressing change. Which of the following actions should the nurse take when setting up the sterile field?
- A. Place the cap from the solution sterile side up on a clean surface.
- B. Open the outermost flap of the sterile kit away from the body.
- C. Place the sterile dressing within 1.25 cm (0.5 in) of the edge of the sterile field.
- D. Set up the sterile field 5 cm (2 in) above waist level.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To maintain the sterility of the field, the nurse should place the cap from the solution sterile side up on a clean surface. This action helps prevent contamination. Choice B is incorrect because opening the outermost flap toward the body increases the risk of introducing contaminants onto the sterile field. Choice C is incorrect as the sterile dressing should be placed at least 2.5 cm (1 in) from the edge of the sterile field to prevent accidental contamination. Choice D is incorrect because setting up the sterile field above waist level could lead to inadvertent contact and compromise the field's sterility.
3. What are the risk factors for the development of pressure ulcers, and how can they be prevented?
- A. Immobility and poor nutrition
- B. Increased mobility and proper hygiene
- C. Excess moisture and lack of movement
- D. Frequent turning and repositioning
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Immobility and poor nutrition are significant risk factors for pressure ulcers. Immobility leads to prolonged pressure on certain body areas, increasing the risk of tissue damage. Poor nutrition can impair skin integrity and the body's ability to heal. Prevention strategies include frequent turning and repositioning to relieve pressure points. Choice B is incorrect because increased mobility actually reduces the risk of pressure ulcers. Choice C is incorrect as excess moisture can contribute to skin breakdown, but it is not a primary risk factor. Choice D is incorrect as frequent turning and repositioning are part of the prevention measures, not risk factors.
4. A nurse in a pediatric clinic is collecting data from a school-age child whose injuries are inconsistent with the parent's stated cause. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Provide teaching to the parents
- B. Report suspected abuse to the appropriate agency
- C. Document the injuries and monitor the child
- D. Counsel the parents privately
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In cases where a child's injuries are inconsistent with the parent's stated cause, it raises concerns about possible abuse. The correct action for the nurse in this situation is to report suspected abuse to the appropriate agency. This is a legal and ethical obligation for healthcare professionals when they suspect child abuse. Providing teaching to the parents (Choice A) may not address the immediate safety concerns of the child. Documenting the injuries and monitoring the child (Choice C) is important but reporting suspected abuse takes precedence to ensure the child's safety. Counseling the parents privately (Choice D) may not be effective if abuse is suspected, as the primary focus should be on protecting the child.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 days postoperative following abdominal surgery and has a new prescription for a regular diet. For which of the following findings should the nurse notify the provider?
- A. Presence of bowel sounds
- B. Client reports nausea
- C. Client is vomiting
- D. Absent bowel sounds
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Absent bowel sounds are concerning as they indicate potential complications such as ileus, which is a risk after abdominal surgery. The absence of bowel sounds can suggest decreased or absent intestinal motility, which may lead to complications if not addressed promptly. The nurse should notify the provider immediately to assess the situation and intervene accordingly. Choices A and B are common postoperative occurrences and do not necessarily warrant immediate provider notification. Choice C, vomiting, while concerning, may be a common postoperative symptom; however, absent bowel sounds are a more critical finding that requires prompt attention.
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