ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quizlet
1. A nurse in a long-term care facility is assisting with an in-service for newly hired assistive personnel about legal issues within the facility. Which of the following should the nurse include as an example of assault?
- A. Threatening to withhold food from a client
- B. Informing a client about an upcoming procedure
- C. Informing a client about risks of refusing treatment
- D. Informing a client that they will be given an injection against their will
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because assault involves threatening a client with harm or unwanted procedures. In this scenario, informing a client that they will be given an injection against their will constitutes assault. Choices A, B, and C do not involve the element of threatening harm or unwanted procedures, making them incorrect. Choice A is more related to neglect, choice B is related to informing the client about a procedure, and choice C is related to informed consent and refusal of treatment, not assault.
2. How should a healthcare professional assess a patient with a tracheostomy?
- A. Monitor for infection and ensure airway patency
- B. Suction airway secretions and provide humidified oxygen
- C. Clean the stoma and change tracheostomy ties
- D. Educate the patient on tracheostomy care
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Question: To assess a patient with a tracheostomy, the healthcare professional should primarily focus on monitoring for infection and ensuring the airway remains patent. Choice A is the correct answer as these actions are crucial for tracheostomy management. Suctioning airway secretions and providing humidified oxygen (Choice B) are interventions that may be necessary based on the assessment findings but are not the initial assessment steps. Similarly, cleaning the stoma and changing tracheostomy ties (Choice C) are important aspects of tracheostomy care but do not specifically address the initial assessment. Educating the patient on tracheostomy care (Choice D) is important, but it is not the primary assessment action needed when assessing a patient with a tracheostomy.
3. What are the differences between viral and bacterial infections?
- A. Viral infections often cause fatigue and body aches
- B. Bacterial infections often cause high fever and localized pain
- C. Viral infections are treated with antibiotics
- D. Bacterial infections are usually self-limiting
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Viral infections often cause fatigue and body aches, while bacterial infections are more likely to cause high fever and localized pain. Choice A is the correct answer as it accurately reflects the symptoms commonly associated with viral infections. Bacterial infections, on the other hand, typically present with fever and localized pain, as stated in choice B. Choice C is incorrect as viral infections do not respond to antibiotics, while choice D is inaccurate because bacterial infections may require antibiotic treatment and are not always self-limiting.
4. What is the primary action the nurse should take first for a client with a pressure ulcer who has a serum albumin level of 3 g/dL?
- A. Increase the protein intake in the diet
- B. Consult with a dietitian to create a high-protein diet
- C. Increase the IV fluid infusion rate
- D. Administer a protein supplement
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to consult with a dietitian to create a high-protein diet. A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL indicates hypoalbuminemia, which can impair wound healing. Consulting with a dietitian to optimize the client's protein intake is crucial in promoting wound healing for pressure ulcers. Increasing the protein intake in the diet (Choice A) may not be sufficient without proper guidance from a dietitian. Increasing the IV fluid infusion rate (Choice C) is not directly related to addressing the protein deficiency. Administering a protein supplement (Choice D) should be guided by a healthcare professional's recommendation after consulting with a dietitian.
5. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?
- A. The client is experiencing an adverse reaction to rifampin.
- B. The client's seizure disorder is no longer under control.
- C. The client is showing evidence of phenytoin toxicity.
- D. The client is having adverse effects due to combination antimicrobial therapy.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.
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