HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam 2024
1. What is the most common genetic cause of intellectual disability?
- A. Down syndrome
- B. Fragile X syndrome
- C. Prader-Willi syndrome
- D. Turner syndrome
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is Fragile X syndrome because it is the most common inherited cause of intellectual disability, resulting from a mutation in the FMR1 gene. Down syndrome, Prader-Willi syndrome, and Turner syndrome are not the most common genetic causes of intellectual disability. Down syndrome is caused by the presence of an extra chromosome 21, Prader-Willi syndrome results from specific genetic abnormalities on chromosome 15, and Turner syndrome is characterized by the absence of part or all of one of the X chromosomes.
2. A new mother who is breastfeeding her newborn for the first time after delivery reports nipple pain when the baby sucks. Based on this client problem, which action should the PN take?
- A. Ensure that all the areolar tissue of the nipple is in the infant's mouth
- B. Have the mother reposition the infant from the cradle to the football hold
- C. Check for engorgement and assess the nipples for cracks or lesions
- D. Apply a warm compress to the breast for 10 minutes before each feeding
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Proper latch, including all the areolar tissue in the infant's mouth, is essential to prevent nipple pain and ensure effective breastfeeding. Option A is correct because ensuring that all the areolar tissue of the nipple is in the infant's mouth helps achieve a good latch, reducing nipple pain. Option B is incorrect as repositioning the infant may not address the root cause of the pain related to latch issues. Option C is incorrect because while checking for engorgement and nipple issues is important, it does not directly address the latch concern causing the pain. Option D is incorrect as applying a warm compress is not recommended for breastfeeding mothers; a warm compress can help with pain associated with engorgement, but it does not address latch issues.
3. Which task could the PN safely delegate to the UAP?
- A. Oral feeding of a two-year-old child after application of a hip spica cast
- B. Assessment of the placement and patency of a NG tube
- C. Participation in staff rounds to record notes regarding client goals
- D. Evaluation of a client's incisional pain following narcotic administration
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because oral feeding of a child is a task that can be safely delegated to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). This task involves providing basic care and does not require specialized nursing skills. Choices B, C, and D involve assessments, recording client goals, and evaluating pain, respectively, which all require specialized nursing knowledge, judgment, and skills. These tasks are not within the scope of practice for a UAP.
4. An older client is admitted to the psychiatric unit for assessment of a recent onset of dementia. The PN notes that in the evening this client often becomes restless, confused, and agitated. Which intervention is most important for the PN to implement?
- A. Ask family members to remain with the client in the evenings from 5 to 8 pm
- B. Administer a prescribed PRN benzodiazepine at the onset of a confused state
- C. Ensure that the client is assigned to a room close to the nurses' station
- D. Postpone administration of nighttime medications until after 11 pm
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Sundowning, a phenomenon where dementia symptoms worsen in the evening, can be managed by ensuring the client is close to the nurses' station for frequent monitoring and quick intervention, if necessary. This reduces the risk of harm and helps manage agitation. Asking family members to remain with the client may not always be feasible and does not address the need for close monitoring. Administering benzodiazepines should not be the first-line intervention for sundowning as it can increase the risk of falls and other adverse effects. Postponing medication administration may disrupt the client's routine and potentially worsen symptoms.
5. The PN administered darbepoetin alfa to a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which serum laboratory value should the PN monitor to assess the effectiveness of this drug?
- A. Calcium
- B. Phosphorus
- C. Hemoglobin
- D. White blood cell count
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Darbepoetin alfa is used to stimulate red blood cell production in clients with CKD. Monitoring hemoglobin levels is essential to assess the effectiveness of the treatment and to adjust the dosage to avoid complications such as hypertension or thrombosis. Monitoring calcium (Choice A), phosphorus (Choice B), or white blood cell count (Choice D) is not directly related to the effectiveness of darbepoetin alfa in treating anemia associated with CKD.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access