Nursing Elites

1. What is the first step in using an automated external defibrillator (AED) on a patient who has collapsed?

• A. Apply the pads to the chest
• B. Turn on the AED and follow the voice prompts
• C. Check the patient's pulse
• D. Ensure the area is clear before delivering a shock

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Turn on the AED and follow the voice prompts. This is the first step in using an AED as the device will guide you through the process of analyzing the heart rhythm and delivering a shock if necessary. Choice A, applying the pads to the chest, comes after turning on the AED. Checking the patient's pulse (Choice C) is not necessary before using an AED as the device is specifically designed to assess the need for defibrillation. Ensuring the area is clear (Choice D) is important for safety but is not the initial step in using an AED.

2. The mother of a 9-month-old child diagnosed with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) yesterday calls the clinic to inquire if it will be all right to take her infant to a friend's child's first birthday party the following day. Which response should the nurse provide?

• A. Do not expose other children as the virus is very contagious even without direct contact
• B. The child will no longer be contagious, no need to take any further precautions
• C. The child can be around other children but should wear a mask
• D. Make sure there are no children under the age of 5 months around the infected child

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is A: 'Do not expose other children as the virus is very contagious even without direct contact.' RSV is highly contagious, especially in young children. Allowing the infected child to attend a birthday party can put other children at risk of contracting the virus. Choice B is incorrect as RSV can remain contagious for a period of time. Choice C is not sufficient, as wearing a mask may not entirely prevent the spread of the virus. Choice D is inaccurate, as children under 5 months are not the only ones susceptible to RSV; all young children are at risk.

3. What is the best thing to say to a patient scheduled for cataract surgery who is concerned that the physician works on the correct eye?

• A. You are wearing an ID bracelet that will let the medical team know which eye to work on.
• B. When you are taken to the surgery area, the medical staff will confirm which eye needs the surgery.
• C. The surgeon will mark the correct eye before the cataract surgery based on your medical records.
• D. You will wear an ID bracelet, and the nurse will verify the eye scheduled for surgery by comparing it with your records and marking it with a permanent marker.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best response reassures the patient by explaining the process of verifying and marking the correct eye, a safety measure to prevent wrong-site surgery, directly addressing the patient’s concern. Choice A is close but implies the ID bracelet alone determines the correct eye, missing the verification process. Choice B talks about confirmation but lacks details about marking the correct eye. Choice C mentions the surgeon's record but does not specify the direct verification and marking process, unlike Choice D.

4. Inspiratory and expiratory stridor may be heard in a client who:

• A. Is experiencing an exacerbation of goiter
• B. Is experiencing an acute asthmatic attack
• C. Has aspirated a piece of meat
• D. Has severe laryngotracheitis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Inspiratory and expiratory stridor are high-pitched, wheezing sounds caused by disrupted airflow due to airway obstruction. Severe laryngotracheitis, involving inflammation and swelling of the larynx and trachea, leads to airway obstruction and can produce both inspiratory and expiratory stridor. Exacerbation of goiter, an acute asthmatic attack, and aspiration of a piece of meat are not typically associated with both inspiratory and expiratory stridor. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect.

5. While caring for a client with a new tracheostomy, the nurse notices that the client is attempting to speak but is unable to. What should the nurse explain to the client regarding their inability to speak?

• A. Speaking is not possible because the tracheostomy tube blocks the vocal cords.
• B. The tracheostomy tube prevents air from reaching the vocal cords, making speech difficult.
• C. The client will regain the ability to speak once the tracheostomy tube is removed.
• D. The tracheostomy tube must be replaced with a speaking valve for the client to speak.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The tracheostomy tube bypasses the vocal cords, preventing air from reaching them, which is necessary for speech. This makes speaking difficult but not impossible. Removing the tracheostomy tube does not automatically restore the ability to speak (choice C). While a speaking valve can be added later to allow speech, initially, the tracheostomy tube itself hinders air from reaching the vocal cords, making speech difficult (choice D is incorrect). Choice A is incorrect as the tracheostomy tube does not block the vocal cords directly; instead, it prevents air from reaching them.

Similar Questions