a client post mastectomy is concerned about the risk of lymphedema what should the nurse include in the discharge instructions to minimize this risk
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HESI LPN

HESI PN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet

1. A client post-mastectomy is concerned about the risk of lymphedema. What should the nurse include in the discharge instructions to minimize this risk?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To minimize the risk of lymphedema after a mastectomy, it is essential to instruct the client to avoid venipunctures and blood pressure measurements on the affected arm. These procedures can lead to trauma or impede lymphatic flow, increasing the risk of lymphedema. Wearing compression garments helps manage lymphedema but is not preventive. Performing vigorous exercises can strain the affected arm and increase the risk of lymphedema. Keeping the affected arm elevated at all times is unnecessary and not an effective preventive measure against lymphedema.

2. The HCP gives a pregnant woman a prescription for one prenatal vitamin with iron daily and tells her that she needs to increase foods in her diet because her hemoglobin is 8.2 grams/dL. When a list of iron-rich foods is given to the client, she tells the PN that she is a vegetarian and does not eat anything that "bleeds." Which instruction should the PN provide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Vegetarians can increase their iron intake through plant-based sources such as green leafy vegetables, oatmeal, and legumes, which are rich in iron.

3. The practical nurse is caring for a client who had a total laryngectomy, left radical neck dissection, and tracheostomy. The client is receiving nasogastric tube feedings via an enteral pump. Today the rate of feeding is increased from 50 ml/hr to 75 ml/hr. What parameter should the PN use to evaluate the client's tolerance to the rate of the feeding?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Monitoring gastric residual volumes helps to assess how well the client is tolerating the increased feeding rate. High residuals may indicate delayed gastric emptying, which could lead to complications like aspiration. This helps in adjusting the feeding plan as necessary. Daily weight (Choice A) is not the most appropriate parameter to evaluate tolerance to feeding rate changes. Bowel sounds (Choice C) and urinary/stool output (Choice D) are important assessments but do not directly indicate tolerance to enteral feeding rate changes.

4. The PN is caring for a client who had an acute brain attack with resulting expressive aphasia and urinary incontinence. To ensure care for the client, which task should the PN delegate to the UAP?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assisting the client to the bedside commode is an appropriate task for the UAP as it involves basic patient care and mobility assistance, which are within the UAP's scope of practice. Options A and B involve communication techniques and documentation, which are more appropriate for licensed nursing staff. Option D involves establishing a bladder training schedule, which requires assessment and planning skills beyond the UAP's role.

5. During a clinic visit for a sore throat, a client's basal metabolic panel reveals a serum potassium of 3.0 mEq/L. Which intervention should the PN recommend to the client based on this finding?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to recommend increasing the intake of dried peaches and apricots. A serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L is considered low. Increasing the intake of potassium-rich foods can help raise the serum potassium level, preventing complications such as muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias. Choice B, reducing intake of red meats, is incorrect because red meats are not specifically related to potassium levels. Choice C, encouraging the use of a soft toothbrush, is unrelated to addressing low potassium levels. Choice D, forcing fluid intake to 1500 mL daily, is not the appropriate intervention for low serum potassium; instead, increasing potassium-rich foods is more beneficial.

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