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PN ATI Comprehensive Predictor
1. What is the correct procedure for taking a telephone order from a provider?
- A. State patient name, drug, dose, route, frequency, and read back the order
- B. State the medication and ask for a witness to listen to the order
- C. Write down the order and verify with the provider within 12 hours
- D. Have the provider verify the order during the next in-person visit
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct procedure for taking a telephone order from a provider is to state the patient's name, drug, dose, route, frequency, and then read back the order to ensure accuracy. This process helps in preventing errors and ensures that all relevant information is correctly documented. Choice B is incorrect because having a witness listen to the order is not a standard practice and may not guarantee accuracy. Choice C is incorrect as verifying the order within 12 hours may lead to delays in patient care. Choice D is incorrect because waiting for the provider to verify the order during the next in-person visit could result in a significant delay in administering necessary medication.
2. A charge nurse is teaching new staff members about factors that increase a client's risk of becoming violent. Which of the following risk factors should the nurse include as the best predictor of future violence?
- A. Experiencing delusions.
- B. Male gender.
- C. Previous violent behavior.
- D. A history of being in prison.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Previous violent behavior. This is considered the best predictor of future violent actions as individuals who have a history of violent behavior are more likely to engage in violent acts again. Option A, experiencing delusions, although it can impact behavior, is not as strong of a predictor as past violent behavior. Option B, male gender, is a demographic factor but not as specific or predictive as a history of violence. Option D, a history of being in prison, may indicate past behavior but is not directly linked to future violent actions as a known history of violence.
3. A healthcare provider is collecting data from a client who has multiple sclerosis. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect?
- A. Fever
- B. Ataxia
- C. Nystagmus
- D. Fatigue
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Ataxia, which refers to difficulty with coordination, is a common symptom seen in individuals with multiple sclerosis. Nystagmus, the involuntary eye movement, can also occur in multiple sclerosis but is not as common as ataxia. Fatigue is a common symptom in multiple sclerosis, but ataxia is more specific. Fever is not a typical finding associated with multiple sclerosis.
4. What is the first intervention for a patient in shock?
- A. Administer fluids
- B. Monitor blood pressure
- C. Provide oxygen
- D. Call for assistance
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer fluids. In a patient experiencing shock, the priority is to address inadequate perfusion by restoring circulating blood volume. Administering fluids helps improve perfusion and oxygen delivery to vital organs. Monitoring blood pressure, providing oxygen, and calling for assistance are important steps but administering fluids is the initial and most critical intervention in the management of shock.
5. What is the first step in managing a client with delirium?
- A. Administer sedative medication to calm the client
- B. Identify any reversible causes of delirium
- C. Limit environmental stimulation to reduce anxiety
- D. Administer antipsychotic medication to control behavior
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct first step in managing a client with delirium is to identify any reversible causes of delirium. This is crucial because addressing the underlying cause can help in resolving delirium more effectively. Administering sedative or antipsychotic medications without addressing the root cause may not be helpful and can even worsen the condition. Limiting environmental stimulation, although important, is not the primary step in managing delirium.
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