ATI LPN
ATI Comprehensive Predictor PN
1. A client needs a 24-hour urine collection initiated. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the procedure?
- A. I had a bowel movement, but I was able to save the urine.
- B. I have a specimen in the bathroom from about 30 minutes ago.
- C. I flushed what I urinated at 7 am and have saved the rest since.
- D. I drink a lot, so I will fill up the bottle and complete the test quickly.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Choice C is correct because it demonstrates the client's understanding of the procedure, which involves discarding the first urine of the day at the specified time and then saving all subsequent urine for the next 24 hours. Choices A, B, and D do not reflect an understanding of the correct procedure. Choice A is incorrect because bowel movements are not part of a 24-hour urine collection. Choice B is incorrect as it does not specify discarding the first urine. Choice D is incorrect as it mentions filling up the bottle quickly, which is not the correct way to collect a 24-hour urine sample.
2. A nurse is teaching a client who has peptic ulcer disease about preventing exacerbations. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Use antacids containing magnesium frequently
- B. Limit alcohol consumption
- C. Eat smaller, frequent meals
- D. Increase caffeine intake
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Limit alcohol consumption. Alcohol consumption can aggravate peptic ulcer disease by increasing gastric acid secretion, potentially leading to exacerbations. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A is not recommended because antacids containing magnesium can interfere with other medications or conditions the client may have. Choice C is a good recommendation; however, it is not the priority instruction for preventing exacerbations. Choice D is also incorrect as caffeine can stimulate gastric acid secretion, which can worsen peptic ulcer disease.
3. What are the signs and symptoms of hyperkalemia and how should it be managed?
- A. Muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias; administer calcium gluconate
- B. Confusion and bradycardia; administer insulin and glucose
- C. Fatigue and irregular heart rate; administer diuretics
- D. Nausea and vomiting; administer sodium bicarbonate
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The signs and symptoms of hyperkalemia include muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias, making choice A correct. Hyperkalemia can lead to dangerous cardiac effects, and calcium gluconate is used to stabilize the heart by antagonizing the effects of potassium. Choices B, C, and D describe symptoms and interventions that are not typically associated with hyperkalemia. Confusion and bradycardia are not common in hyperkalemia, and insulin and glucose are used in hyperkalemia only under specific circumstances. Fatigue and irregular heart rate are vague symptoms, and diuretics are not the primary treatment for hyperkalemia. Nausea and vomiting are nonspecific symptoms and sodium bicarbonate is not indicated for the management of hyperkalemia.
4. How should a healthcare professional assess a patient with suspected sepsis?
- A. Monitor vital signs and administer antibiotics
- B. Monitor for signs of infection and confusion
- C. Monitor for fever and check oxygen saturation
- D. Assess for confusion and administer fluids
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When assessing a patient with suspected sepsis, it is crucial to monitor vital signs like temperature, heart rate, respiratory rate, and blood pressure. Administering antibiotics promptly is also vital to treat the infection causing sepsis. This approach helps in preventing the progression of sepsis to severe stages and reduces the risk of complications. Choice B is incorrect because only monitoring signs of infection and confusion may delay necessary treatment with antibiotics. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses only on fever and oxygen saturation, missing other important vital signs. Choice D is incorrect because assessing for confusion alone is not sufficient, and administering fluids should be guided by the patient's fluid status rather than being an initial step in suspected sepsis assessment.
5. A healthcare professional is collecting data from a client who is in the diagnostic center and is scheduled to undergo a colonoscopy. Based on the information provided in the client's chart, which of the following pieces of data places this client at risk for colorectal cancer?
- A. Family history of asthma
- B. Elevated BMI
- C. History of travel
- D. High cholesterol
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Elevated BMI is a significant risk factor for colorectal cancer. Excess body weight, especially around the waist, increases the risk of developing this type of cancer. Family history of asthma (Choice A) is not directly related to colorectal cancer risk. History of travel (Choice C) and high cholesterol (Choice D) are also not established risk factors for colorectal cancer.
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