HESI LPN
Medical Surgical Assignment Exam HESI Quizlet
1. What could suddenly occur in a child with acute epiglottitis?
- A. Increased carbon dioxide levels
- B. Airway obstruction
- C. Inability to swallow
- D. Bronchial collapse
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In acute epiglottitis, the infected epiglottis becomes inflamed and can lead to sudden airway obstruction, which is a life-threatening emergency. This can cause difficulty breathing and necessitates immediate intervention to secure the airway. Increased carbon dioxide levels may occur due to inadequate ventilation resulting from airway obstruction, but the primary concern is the obstruction itself, not the carbon dioxide levels. Inability to swallow may be present due to pain and swelling in the throat but is not the immediate life-threatening complication associated with acute epiglottitis. Bronchial collapse is not a typical consequence of acute epiglottitis.
2. Which is a priority nursing intervention for the cognitively impaired child?
- A. The family will provide good nutrition.
- B. The family will provide loving interactions.
- C. Stimulation will improve.
- D. There will be contact with peers.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because nursing interventions for cognitively impaired children prioritize promoting loving interactions with family. This support helps in creating a nurturing environment that contributes to the child's well-being and development. Choice A is not the priority as good nutrition, though important, may not address the immediate emotional and social needs of the child. Choice C is vague and does not specify how stimulation will be provided. Choice D, contact with peers, is also valuable but not as crucial as the primary relationships and interactions within the family unit for a cognitively impaired child.
3. A client with a history of chronic pain requests a nonopioid analgesic. The client is alert but has difficulty describing the exact nature and location of the pain to the nurse. What action should the nurse implement next?
- A. Administer the analgesic as requested.
- B. Request a pain assessment from another nurse.
- C. Ask the client to describe the pain more precisely.
- D. Delay administration until the pain is better described.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement next is to delay administration until the pain is better described. It is essential to have a clear understanding of the nature and location of the pain before administering any analgesic to ensure appropriate and effective pain management. Requesting a pain assessment from another nurse or asking the client to describe the pain more precisely would also be appropriate actions to obtain more information before administering the analgesic. Administering the analgesic as requested without a clear description of the pain may not address the client's needs effectively and could potentially lead to ineffective pain management.
4. The settings on a client's synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation (SIMV) are respiratory rate 12 breaths/minute, tidal volume at 600 mL, FiO2 35%, and positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) 5 cm H2O. Which assessment finding necessitates immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Bilateral crackles in the lung bases.
- B. Low-pressure indicator alarm.
- C. Oxygen saturation of 91%.
- D. Respiratory rate of 18 breaths/minute.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A low-pressure alarm may indicate a disconnection or leak in the system, which needs immediate intervention. Bilateral crackles in the lung bases may indicate fluid overload but do not require immediate intervention in this case. An oxygen saturation of 91% is concerning but not as urgent as a potential equipment issue. A respiratory rate of 18 breaths/minute is higher than the set rate but may not necessitate immediate intervention unless accompanied by other distress symptoms.
5. A male client with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) and Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia has a CD4+ T cell count of 200 cells/microliter. The client asks the nurse why he keeps getting these massive infections. Which pathophysiologic mechanism should the nurse describe in response to the client's question?
- A. Bone marrow suppression of white blood cells causes insufficient cells to phagocytize organisms.
- B. Exposure to multiple environmental infectious agents overburdens the immune system until it fails.
- C. The humoral immune response lacks B cells that form antibodies and opportunistic infections result.
- D. Inadequate numbers of T lymphocytes are available to initiate cellular immunity and macrophages.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: With a CD4+ T cell count of 200 cells/microliter, the client's immune system is severely compromised, leading to opportunistic infections.
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